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AZ 900 Practice Exam 2
Take your exam preparation to the next level with fully simulated online practice tests designed to replicate the real exam experience. These exams feature realistic questions, timed conditions, and detailed explanations to help you assess your knowledge, identify weak areas, and build confidence before test day.
1. A global manufacturing company plans to deploy several virtual machines in different Azure regions to support their distributed workforce. They need the VMs to be highly available and remain functional even in the event of regional outages. Which configuration should they use to ensure this level of availability?
Answer: A. Availability Zones Explanation: Availability Zones (A) provide high availability by distributing virtual machines across physically separate datacenters within a region, ensuring continuity during localized outages and maintaining functionality for a global workforce. Proximity Placement Groups (B) optimize network latency but do not offer redundancy across regions. Availability Sets (C) improve VM redundancy within a single datacenter but do not protect against regional outages. Spot Instances (D) offer cost savings but lack the reliability required for high availability and continuity during outages.
2. A healthcare provider is using Microsoft Defender for Cloud to secure patient data on Azure. They want to proactively identify configuration weaknesses in their environment to minimize risks of data exposure. Which specific feature in Microsoft Defender for Cloud would be most useful for this purpose?
Answer: A. Security Recommendations (A) in Microsoft Defender for Cloud provide insights into potential configuration weaknesses and suggest actions to strengthen the security posture, helping the healthcare provider protect patient data. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) (B) manages access permissions but does not identify configuration weaknesses. Conditional Access (C) enhances access control but does not offer configuration recommendations. Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) (D) increases login security but does not address configuration weaknesses within resources.
3. A multinational corporation has multiple applications hosted in Azure and needs to manage DNS for these applications using custom domain names. They require low-latency DNS resolution for users worldwide. Which feature of Azure DNS helps the company achieve global, fast DNS response times?
Answer: C. Anycast networking Explanation: Azure DNS uses Anycast networking (C), which allows DNS requests to be resolved by the nearest available Azure DNS server, resulting in low-latency responses for users worldwide. This setup improves DNS resolution speed and reliability for applications with a global user base. Traffic routing based on location (A) is provided by Azure Traffic Manager, not Azure DNS directly. Integration with Azure Active Directory (B) manages identity but does not impact DNS response times. Custom IP addressing schemes (D) are useful for network configuration but do not enhance DNS performance.
4. A healthcare organization is moving its patient management application to the cloud. Due to regulatory requirements, the organization needs to ensure that sensitive data remains on-premises, while non-sensitive data and applications can leverage cloud services for better accessibility and scalability. Which deployment model would best fulfill this requirement?
Answer: D. Explanation: Hybrid Cloud (D) is the most suitable deployment model for this scenario because it allows the organization to keep sensitive data on-premises, addressing regulatory concerns while leveraging the cloud for scalability and accessibility of non-sensitive applications. The Hybrid model combines the best of both worlds, allowing for secure, local control of sensitive information alongside the flexibility and cost-efficiency of cloud services. (A) Public Cloud would not meet the requirement to keep certain data on-premises due to data residency concerns. (B) Community Cloud might be beneficial in specific cases if healthcare organizations with similar needs were sharing resources; however, it still does not address the direct need for on-premises data control. (C) Private Cloud would ensure secure, on-premises control but would limit the organization’s ability to leverage the cloud's scalability and resource efficiency benefits for non-sensitive data.
5. A multinational company is setting up an Azure environment with multiple virtual networks (VNets) in different regions to support various business units. Each business unit needs to securely access resources in other regions without exposing them to the public internet. Which Azure feature should they use to enable seamless, private connectivity between these VNets?
Answer: B. Virtual Network Peering Explanation: Virtual Network Peering (B) enables direct, private connectivity between VNets across regions using Azure's backbone network, allowing secure and low-latency communication without exposing resources to the public internet. This feature is ideal for a multinational company needing to link VNets in different regions while maintaining security and performance. Public IPs (A) would expose resources to the internet, compromising security. VPN Gateway with site-to-site configuration (C) is intended for connecting on-premises networks with Azure, not for inter-VNet communication within Azure. Azure Front Door (D) is a global load balancing service, not a network peering solution for VNets.
6. A cloud administrator needs to analyze the performance of a set of virtual machines (VMs) over the past month to understand utilization trends and identify underutilized resources. They decide to use Azure’s Log Analytics for this task. Which of the following actions should the administrator take to perform this analysis in Log Analytics?
Answer: A Explanation: The administrator should use Kusto Query Language (KQL) in the Log Analytics Workspace (A) to create a query that pulls historical CPU and memory usage data for the VMs, enabling them to analyze utilization trends effectively. Log Analytics allows detailed querying and reporting on resource metrics. Option (B) focuses on setting real-time alerts rather than historical data analysis. Option (C), Cost Management, addresses expenses but lacks resource performance metrics. Option (D), Activity Logs, track administrative actions but won’t provide performance trends.
7. A tech startup uses various Azure services to develop and deploy its applications and is concerned about data encryption and security governance. They want to securely manage encryption keys, certificates, and secrets to avoid unauthorized access. Which Azure service would best meet their security and governance needs for managing these sensitive assets?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Option (B) is correct as Azure Key Vault is designed to securely store and manage encryption keys, certificates, and secrets, giving the startup a centralized, secure platform for managing sensitive assets. Key Vault provides access control and auditing capabilities to ensure only authorized users access critical keys and secrets, aligning with security governance practices. Option (A) is incorrect as Azure Security Center provides a high-level overview of security posture but does not store or manage keys. Option (C) is incorrect because Azure Information Protection is focused on data classification, not key management. Option (D) is incorrect because Virtual Network secures the infrastructure but does not manage encryption keys or provide the centralized secret management the startup requires.
8. An e-commerce company wants to build a custom shopping platform that can dynamically scale based on web traffic while allowing developers to focus on building unique features without handling backend infrastructure. They are also interested in utilizing built-in tools for deploying and testing various components. Which Azure service model would be most effective for these requirements?
Answer: A. Platform as a Service (PaaS) Explanation: Platform as a Service (PaaS) (A) is ideal for this scenario because it allows the e-commerce company to focus on application development without needing to manage backend infrastructure. PaaS supports automatic scaling based on demand and includes built-in deployment tools, making it well-suited for creating a dynamic shopping platform. IaaS (B) would require them to manage infrastructure configurations, which is counter to their goal of focusing on feature development. SaaS (C) provides fully managed applications and lacks the flexibility needed for custom application features. Virtual Machines (D) are part of IaaS and would not provide the streamlined management and scalability that PaaS offers for this use case.
9. A healthcare organization maintains a large volume of patient records on their on-premises file servers, which must be synchronized with Azure for backup and remote access. They need a solution that can sync only recent files locally while keeping all files stored in Azure to save local storage. Which feature of Azure File Sync should they enable?
Answer: A. Cloud Tiering Explanation: Cloud Tiering (A) allows Azure File Sync to keep frequently accessed (recent) files on the local server while moving older or less frequently accessed files to Azure Files. This feature optimizes local storage by tiering infrequently used data to the cloud, ensuring access to all files without consuming local storage space. Data Deduplication (B) is a storage optimization feature available on Windows Server but not part of Azure File Sync’s capabilities. Multi-channel Sync (C) does not exist in Azure File Sync, and Snapshot Management (D) manages file versions but does not address the storage optimization needs achieved through tiering.
10. A media production company requires an Azure storage account to store and manage video files that will be streamed frequently. They need an account type optimized for high-performance, unstructured data storage that supports massive scalability and access from web and mobile applications. Which storage account type would be best suited to these requirements?
Answer: C. Block Blob Storage Explanation: Block Blob Storage (C) is optimized for unstructured data storage, making it ideal for scenarios involving massive, scalable storage of media files like video content. It offers high-performance tiers, including options specifically for frequently accessed data, and integrates seamlessly with web and mobile applications for fast data streaming. General-purpose v2 (B) supports a broader range of storage types but may not be as specialized or cost-effective as Block Blob Storage for high-performance streaming scenarios. General-purpose v1 (A) is an older storage account type with fewer features and optimizations, making it less suitable for this high-demand use case. File Storage (D) is designed for managed file shares and is not optimized for the performance requirements of streaming unstructured media files.
11. A global consulting firm frequently collaborates with external legal advisors who need access to confidential project files stored in Azure. The legal advisors should be able to use their own corporate credentials without creating separate accounts. To ensure secure access, the firm also wants to assign specific permissions to these advisors. Which Azure feature would best support this scenario?
Answer: A. Azure AD B2B with Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) (A) is the ideal solution as Azure AD B2B allows the legal advisors to access resources with their own corporate credentials, simplifying the user experience. RBAC then enables the consulting firm to assign specific permissions, ensuring that the legal advisors only have access to the resources necessary for their work. Azure AD B2C (B) is intended for customer access rather than business-to-business collaboration. Pass-through Authentication (C) allows on-premises credentials but doesn’t handle permissions for external users. Azure AD Domain Services (D) is designed for domain services but does not provide direct B2B access capabilities.
12. A healthcare provider wants to enhance security for patient data access by eliminating password use for employees and instead using biometrics on organization-managed Windows devices. Which passwordless solution in Azure would best meet this requirement?
Answer: A. Windows Hello for Business (A) is the most suitable option, as it allows for passwordless sign-in using biometrics on Windows devices, which meets the healthcare provider’s requirement for secure access to sensitive patient data on organization-managed devices. FIDO2 security keys (B) provide passwordless authentication but may not offer integrated biometric capabilities specific to Windows devices. Microsoft Authenticator app notifications (C) are more suited to mobile devices rather than organization-managed Windows devices. Password Hash Synchronization (D) does not remove passwords from the authentication process.
13. A healthcare application on Azure needs continuous monitoring to track the performance of its various APIs and ensure fast response times, especially for critical patient data retrieval functions. To improve monitoring, the team is considering Application Insights but is unsure which feature will help them view performance data across each API call. What is the most suitable feature in Application Insights for this requirement?
Answer: B Explanation: The team should use Request Metrics (B) in Application Insights, as it tracks the performance of each API call, allowing them to monitor response times for critical patient data retrieval functions. Option (A), Application Map, provides a high-level view of component interactions but not detailed API performance data. Option (C), Availability Tests, are for uptime monitoring but do not provide API-specific metrics. Option (D), Dependency Tracking, helps with database call monitoring but does not focus on API call performance.
14. An educational institution is deploying Azure Virtual Desktop to support online learning. They want students to access a standardized desktop environment, where each session provides the same desktop settings and applications, but without saving changes made by individual students. Which configuration should the institution choose for their Azure Virtual Desktop deployment?
Answer: A. Pooled desktops with non-persistent settings Explanation: Pooled desktops with non-persistent settings (A) allow multiple students to access a standardized desktop environment where each session starts with the same configuration, and no changes are saved between sessions. This setup ensures consistency and prevents any modifications by students from affecting future sessions, ideal for an educational environment. Dedicated desktops with full customization (B) provide individual settings per user, which is unnecessary for standardized sessions. Windows 10 Enterprise with individual user settings (C) would allow each user to save their settings, contrary to the institution’s requirement. Persistent desktops with saved user profiles (D) would save changes, making them unsuitable for a consistent, standardized setup.
15. A financial services app needs to implement a password reset feature for its customers who access the app via Azure AD B2C. They want users to reset their passwords independently without contacting support. Which Azure AD B2C feature should they enable to accomplish this?
Answer: A. Self-service Password Reset (SSPR) (A) is the most suitable feature, as it enables customers to reset their own passwords without assistance, improving user experience and reducing support workload. Privileged Identity Management (PIM) (B) is for managing internal administrative roles, not customer-facing password resets. Azure AD Domain Services (C) is for providing domain-level services for internal users and is not relevant to B2C. Conditional Access Policies (D) improve access security but do not provide a self-service password reset option.
16. A global marketing firm manages extensive customer data and must comply with strict data residency laws that require certain data to remain within specific regions. They also want to run large-scale ad analytics that need substantial computational power, which varies based on campaign demands. Considering these requirements, which cloud model should they implement to achieve both compliance and scalability?
Answer: B. Explanation: Hybrid Cloud (B) is the ideal model here, as it allows the marketing firm to keep sensitive customer data on-premises or within compliant data centers while using cloud resources for scalable analytics, aligning with compliance and computational needs. The Hybrid Cloud’s flexibility enables adherence to data residency laws by storing regulated data locally while leveraging cloud services for demanding analytics without over-provisioning infrastructure. (A) Private Cloud keeps data local but lacks the scalability needed for large-scale ad analytics. (C) Multi-Cloud could provide services from multiple providers but adds unnecessary complexity and does not inherently address the data residency requirement. (D) Public Cloud offers scalability but might violate data residency laws if the data must remain in specific regions.
17. A multinational retail corporation operates across different continents, with each region managing its Azure resources independently. The company wants to maintain unified governance, allowing each region to have its own budgets and policies while ensuring all regional resources align with a global set of compliance standards. Which hierarchy structure would best support this organization’s needs?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Creating a management group for each continent with region-specific subscriptions (B) allows the company to manage global compliance by applying policies at the root management group, while each regional management group enables specific budgets and localized governance for each region. This structure provides a hierarchical setup that aligns each region with global standards and maintains regional autonomy. Option A (single resource group) would complicate governance and make tracking policies challenging. Option C (single subscription with regional resource groups) lacks isolation and scalability for regional control. Option D (separate subscriptions by resource type) does not address regional hierarchy or global compliance needs, making B the best approach.
18. A development team needs to quickly upload thousands of small files to Azure Blob Storage, and they are looking to maximize the speed of the transfer process. Which AzCopy command option should they consider using to optimize this bulk file transfer?
Answer: D. /parallel Explanation: The /parallel option (D) in AzCopy allows multiple files to be transferred simultaneously, significantly increasing the upload speed when handling thousands of small files. Using multiple parallel threads can make the process faster than sequentially transferring files. The /sync (A) command is for syncing changes rather than maximizing transfer speed. The /recursive (B) option is used to include all subdirectories in a transfer but does not impact transfer speed. The /cap-mbps (C) command limits bandwidth, which could slow down rather than maximize transfer speed, making /parallel the optimal choice.
19. A global manufacturing company is implementing a security strategy for its Azure environment based on Zero Trust principles. They want to ensure that employees can only access sensitive data when using devices compliant with company security policies, regardless of whether they are on the corporate network. Which approach aligns with Zero Trust and meets the company’s requirements?
Answer: A. Implement Conditional Access with device compliance policies (A) aligns with Zero Trust principles by enforcing strict access controls based on device compliance rather than network location. Zero Trust assumes no inherent trust in any location or device, so access is granted only if the device meets the organization’s security standards. Azure AD Connect for password synchronization (B) enables identity consistency but does not enforce compliance or restrict access based on device security. VPNs (C) provide secure access but do not evaluate device compliance or adhere strictly to Zero Trust, as they may inherently trust connected devices. Granting Contributor permissions (D) at the subscription level provides excessive access that isn’t tied to Zero Trust principles of minimal privilege and device compliance.
20. A manufacturing company has multiple on-premises servers in various locations and wants to enable an Azure-based monitoring solution to track performance and detect anomalies in real time across these servers. They also want to use this information to enhance security posture. Which Azure service should they leverage?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: The correct answer is A. Azure Security Center with Azure Arc allows the company to extend Azure’s security monitoring and threat detection to on-premises servers, providing real-time insights and anomaly detection across the hybrid infrastructure. This integration offers a comprehensive view of security posture for both Azure and on-premises resources. Azure Sentinel (B) is a security information and event management (SIEM) tool but does not directly monitor server performance or integrate natively with on-premises resources without Azure Arc. Azure Virtual Network (C) is used for networking but does not support monitoring. Azure Backup (D) provides data protection and recovery services but does not monitor or secure server performance.
21. An e-commerce company wants to automate the deployment of its Azure infrastructure, which includes virtual machines, databases, and network components. They also need to manage these resources as a single unit for simplified monitoring and updates. How should they achieve this?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Using a Resource Manager template to deploy resources within a single resource group (B) enables the company to automate the deployment of all components, ensuring consistent infrastructure and simplified monitoring and management of these resources as a single unit. This approach allows all related resources to be managed collectively, reducing the complexity of manual deployment and enabling easy reconfiguration and redeployment if needed. Option A (manual deployment) does not provide automation benefits, and Option C (different resource groups) fragments resources, complicating management. Option D (different subscriptions) is unnecessarily complex and does not address the need for consolidated management, making B the best choice.
22. Lisa, a network security manager, needs to enable secure access to applications for her team while working remotely. The organization wants to ensure that only compliant devices access sensitive applications, regardless of location. What Microsoft Entra ID feature would allow Lisa to enforce these conditions?
Answer: A. Microsoft Entra ID Conditional Access (A) is the most appropriate feature for Lisa as it allows her to create policies enforcing device compliance before granting access to sensitive applications, ensuring secure access from any location. Microsoft Entra ID Domain Services (B) provides support for legacy protocols within Azure but does not enforce compliance conditions. Microsoft Entra ID Connect (C) synchronizes on-premises directories with Microsoft Entra ID but does not enforce conditional access policies. Application Proxy (D) facilitates access to on-premises applications but lacks the device compliance control required by the scenario.
23. Linda needs to improve the reliability of a mission-critical application deployed on Azure and wants to make use of Azure Advisor’s reliability recommendations. She’s unsure about how these recommendations can be implemented. What would be the most effective way for Linda to use Azure Advisor to achieve her goal?
Answer: B Explanation: Linda should review the Reliability tab in Azure Advisor (B), where Advisor provides specific recommendations to improve high availability and fault tolerance, ensuring that her application’s reliability is enhanced. Option (A) is partially relevant but does not leverage Advisor’s tailored recommendations. Option (C) could help with redundancy but does not utilize Azure Advisor’s insights. Option (D) is unrelated to Advisor’s function, as Azure Policy enforces compliance rather than improving reliability.
24. A DevOps engineer is assigned to deploy an application that consists of multiple resources, including virtual machines, databases, and networking components, across several environments. The deployment must be repeatable and consistent, ensuring that the infrastructure is set up exactly the same way each time. Which Azure tool should the engineer use to achieve this level of automation and consistency?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The correct answer is B. ARM Templates enable the engineer to define and deploy a group of Azure resources in a consistent, repeatable manner through JSON configuration files. By using ARM Templates, the engineer can automate deployments with defined configurations across multiple environments, ensuring consistency each time the infrastructure is deployed. Azure Blueprints (A) can package ARM Templates but are more suited for deploying and managing entire environments rather than individual applications. Azure Policy (C) is used for enforcing compliance and governance across resources but does not directly manage deployments. Azure Site Recovery (D) is designed for disaster recovery, not for automated infrastructure deployment.
25. A national research institute in France needs to host sensitive scientific data on Azure while adhering to strict European Union data protection laws. Due to data residency requirements, they need an isolated cloud region within the EU designed for regulated workloads. Which Azure region would be the most appropriate for this organization’s needs?
Correct Answer: D Explanation: The France Sovereign Region (D) is ideal for this organization, as it provides an Azure cloud environment designed to meet the strictest EU data protection and residency regulations, ensuring that all data remains securely within French jurisdiction. This region is tailored for government and regulated workloads, ensuring isolation from the public cloud and heightened compliance, unlike France Central (A), UK South (B), and West Europe (C), which are standard public regions without the same level of isolation or specific compliance features required by government and regulated sectors in France and the EU.
26. A multinational corporation needs to consolidate multiple Azure subscriptions under a single billing account to simplify payment processing. However, it also wants to retain cost reporting and usage analytics for each subsidiary separately. Which Azure feature best supports these requirements?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Linking all subscriptions to a single billing account and enabling Cost Management for each subscription (B) allows the corporation to consolidate payment processing under one account while maintaining cost tracking and reporting capabilities for each subsidiary. Each subscription’s costs and usage can be monitored independently, meeting the requirement for separate analytics. Option A (Management Groups with budgets) does not handle billing consolidation directly. Option C (merging resources into a single subscription) complicates cost tracking per subsidiary, and Option D (single subscription with resource groups) does not provide the needed cost separation for each subsidiary, making B the best solution.
27. A company with an extensive on-premises infrastructure is evaluating the costs of migrating to Azure over a three-year period. They are concerned about both initial and ongoing costs, including equipment maintenance, utilities, and labor associated with their current environment. Which Azure tool should they prioritize to accurately estimate cost savings from moving to Azure, taking into account these hidden expenses?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator (C) is specifically designed to help organizations understand the cost savings of migrating to Azure by comparing on-premises costs, including hardware, maintenance, and energy costs, to Azure’s cloud services. The TCO Calculator factors in these hidden expenses, providing a comprehensive view of potential savings. The Azure Pricing Calculator (A) is useful for calculating Azure service costs but does not consider on-premises infrastructure costs, so it’s limited in this context. Azure Cost Management (B) helps monitor and manage expenses but does not offer the detailed comparison needed for migration cost evaluation. Azure Reservations Calculator (D) only assists in calculating savings from reserved instances, not for full migration cost estimation.
28. An online retail company wants to use the defense-in-depth model to secure its Azure environment. They plan to use network security groups, application security groups, and endpoint security policies to limit access and protect their systems. What is the primary purpose of implementing this defense-in-depth model?
Answer: A. The primary purpose of implementing the defense-in-depth model (A) is to ensure layered security controls that protect resources even if one layer is breached, minimizing risk by securing resources at multiple levels (network, application, and endpoints). Allowing unrestricted access (B) contradicts defense-in-depth, which limits access. Reducing the need for permissions (C) does not align with the model, as defense-in-depth often increases security measures. Faster access without authentication (D) is contrary to the security-focused nature of defense-in-depth.
29. A software company deploys its development and testing environment on Azure and wants consistent performance without unexpected costs from resources scaling out due to temporary load spikes. How should the company architect its environment to meet these goals?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Option (B) is correct because Azure Reserved Virtual Machines provide a fixed cost for consistent VM availability over a set period, reducing cost unpredictability and ensuring reliable performance for development and testing environments. This approach is ideal for workloads that don’t require frequent scaling. Option (A) is incorrect as standard SSD storage only impacts storage performance and does not address overall cost predictability. Option (C) is incorrect because Logic Apps focus on workflow automation, not the cost stability needed for consistent resource usage. Option (D) is incorrect because manually scaling a large VM may impact workload reliability and is operationally less efficient.
30. An online education platform wants to deploy a new video streaming feature that requires consistent uptime and high scalability to support unpredictable traffic spikes. They seek a solution that allows them to manage specific components within containers and handle microservices architecture efficiently. Which Azure compute service is best suited for this scenario?
Answer: B. Azure Kubernetes Service Explanation: Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) (B) is ideal for managing microservices and containerized applications that require high scalability and availability, making it well-suited for the video streaming feature with potentially unpredictable traffic. AKS allows granular management of specific components and is built to handle microservices architectures effectively. Azure Functions (A) are designed for event-driven and lightweight tasks, not suitable for complex applications like video streaming. Azure App Service (C) provides a managed platform but lacks the flexibility for fine-grained container orchestration and control over microservices. Azure Virtual Machines (D) offer a full OS but would require significant manual scaling and lack the agility provided by a container management system.
31. A developer is working on a script that will provision multiple Azure resources across different regions and apply a consistent tagging structure to each resource for cost-tracking purposes. They prefer to automate this task entirely through commands to ensure accuracy and repeatability. Which feature within Azure CLI should they leverage to automate the provisioning and ensure that tags are applied consistently?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The correct answer is B. The “az deployment group create” command in Azure CLI allows users to deploy resources using a JSON template, which provides a structured, repeatable method to define resources with parameters, including tags. This approach is ideal for automation, ensuring tags are applied uniformly to all resources without manual intervention. Using “az resource create” (A) would require creating each resource individually, which increases the likelihood of inconsistency. “az tag create” (C) defines tags but does not apply them automatically to new resources, and “az policy definition” (D) can enforce tagging policies but does not tag resources directly as they are created.
32. A company developing a mobile game needs a scalable solution for its backend services. Player activity is unpredictable, with higher usage on weekends and holidays. They aim to minimize backend costs during off-peak times. Which aspect of the consumption-based model would be most beneficial in this scenario?
Answer: B. Explanation: On-demand resource allocation with payment only during active times (B) is the ideal solution for managing costs in this scenario. This approach enables the game’s backend to scale up for peak usage periods and down during off-peak times, allowing the company to only pay for the resources used when there is player activity. (A) Long-term allocation would lead to unnecessary expenses during low-demand periods. (C) Paying a set monthly price disregards fluctuating activity levels, leading to higher overall costs. (D) Scheduling resources could be an option but may not fully capture the variable nature of player activity.
33. A retail company is preparing for a high-traffic shopping event and wants to ensure all application components are performing optimally. The IT team decides to set up alerts in Azure Monitor to notify them if response times for their web application exceed acceptable limits. What type of alert should they configure for this purpose?
Answer: B Explanation: The IT team should use a Log Analytics query alert (B) to track HTTP request latency, as Log Analytics allows for custom queries based on log data such as request timings, enabling targeted alerts on response time thresholds. Option (A), Service Health Alerts, would only inform of Azure service outages, not application performance. Option (C), a Metric Alert on CPU usage, could indicate performance issues indirectly but doesn’t directly monitor response times. Option (D), Activity Log Alerts, focus on configuration changes and are unrelated to tracking application response metrics.
34. A technology startup has deployed a Site-to-Site VPN using Azure VPN Gateway to connect its headquarters’ on-premises network to an Azure VNet. They want to establish an additional Site-to-Site connection between a branch office and the same VNet. What configuration should they enable on Azure VPN Gateway to support this requirement?
Answer: A. Configure multi-site VPN on the VPN Gateway Explanation: Configuring multi-site VPN (A) on Azure VPN Gateway allows multiple Site-to-Site connections to a single Azure VNet, supporting the startup’s requirement to connect both the headquarters and the branch office to Azure. This setup allows each on-premises site to establish its own secure connection to Azure. Enabling forced tunneling (B) routes internet-bound traffic through on-premises networks but does not enable additional Site-to-Site connections. Deploying separate VPN Gateways (C) is unnecessary and inefficient, as a single gateway can support multiple connections. Point-to-Site VPN (D) is designed for individual user connections, not site-to-site configurations.
35. A startup company is launching a new web application and needs a cost-effective, fully managed platform that will handle scaling and infrastructure management. They want to focus solely on deploying code without managing underlying servers. Which Azure service should they choose to meet these requirements?
Answer: C. Azure App Service Explanation: Azure App Service (C) is a fully managed platform-as-a-service (PaaS) solution that allows developers to deploy web applications without needing to manage the underlying infrastructure. It automatically scales based on demand, handling operational tasks such as patching and load balancing, making it ideal for a startup focusing on code deployment without worrying about server management. Azure Virtual Machines (A) provide complete control over the environment but require the user to manage the OS, updates, and scaling, adding unnecessary complexity. Azure Kubernetes Service (B) is suitable for containerized applications but requires managing container orchestration, which can be more complex than needed for a simple web app. Azure Functions (D) is a serverless option ideal for event-driven tasks, but it lacks the full web app framework provided by App Service.
36. A tech startup is planning to use Azure’s Platform as a Service (PaaS) to launch a customer relationship management (CRM) system. Given their minimal IT staff, they are interested in understanding which security responsibilities remain theirs. Which task would still fall to the startup under the shared responsibility model?
Answer: B. Explanation: In a PaaS model, the startup is responsible for implementing identity and access management (IAM) within the application (B) to control user access, ensuring proper authentication and authorization. Azure handles hardware availability (A), physical data center security (D), and the server OS security (C), which includes patching and maintenance. The startup’s responsibility is to enforce security within its application, such as managing user permissions and protecting sensitive customer data through IAM practices.
37. A data analytics firm uses multiple Azure services distributed across regions. Recently, they noticed a decline in the performance of some services. To determine if the issue is caused by an Azure service-related problem, which tool or feature should they rely on?
Answer: B Explanation: The data analytics firm should use Azure Service Health (B) to check for any active incidents or outages affecting their deployed regions. Service Health provides visibility into Azure service-related issues, helping identify whether performance decline is due to broader Azure issues. While Option (A), Resource Health, focuses on specific resources, it won’t provide regional or service-wide incident data. Option (C), Activity Log, records configuration changes but doesn’t inform about Azure service health. Option (D), Log Analytics, is effective for performance analysis but not for identifying service health incidents.
38. A company is preparing to track and optimize resource usage in Azure by designing custom dashboards in the Azure portal. However, they want these dashboards to be shared only with specific team members who have a need-to-know basis for resource monitoring. Which feature in the Azure portal would best support creating and managing access to these custom dashboards?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The correct answer is B. Shared Azure Dashboards with RBAC controls allow users to create custom dashboards and restrict access by assigning specific roles, ensuring that only authorized team members can view or interact with these dashboards. Public Dashboards (A) would make the dashboard accessible to anyone with portal access, which fails to limit access as required. Azure Monitor - Application Insights (C) is useful for monitoring application performance, not for creating user-specific dashboards. Saved Queries in Resource Graph Explorer (D) allow users to save and visualize queries but do not create comprehensive dashboards or control dashboard-level access.
39. A company needs to deploy a legacy file server in Azure that uses NTFS permissions for file access. They want to restrict access to this server to only specific users and groups defined in their on-premises Active Directory. Which feature of Microsoft Entra Domain Services will allow them to enforce these access permissions within Azure?
Answer: A. Integration with NTFS permissions and on-premises Active Directory (A) provided by Microsoft Entra Domain Services enables the company to enforce access control using existing Active Directory groups, making it possible to restrict file server access within Azure without modifying user and group structures. Conditional Access (B) enforces policies on access but does not directly apply NTFS permissions. ARM templates (C) assist in deploying resources but do not configure access permissions at the file system level. Microsoft Entra Identity Governance (D) governs access lifecycles but does not apply NTFS permissions directly.
40. A technology company wants to ensure its Azure deployment meets both availability and disaster recovery needs for its primary user base in Australia. They need to follow best practices by leveraging region pairs for failover within the country. Which Azure region pair would best support this requirement?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Australia East and Australia Southeast (A) are the best choices as they form an Azure region pair within Australia, which enhances disaster recovery capabilities while maintaining low latency and complying with regional data residency requirements. This region pair ensures automatic data replication and quick failover options within the same country. East US and West US (B) are US-based and irrelevant to Australian needs, while Australia Southeast and East Asia (C) cross international boundaries, potentially violating data residency requirements. Japan East and Japan West (D) are suitable for Japanese data residency but do not benefit an Australian deployment, making Australia East and Australia Southeast the optimal solution.
41. A financial services company needs to deploy a trading application that experiences extreme traffic spikes during market hours. To handle the unpredictable load, they require a solution that can automatically adjust the number of virtual machines in response to demand while ensuring high availability. Which feature of Azure Virtual Machine Scale Sets will allow them to achieve this requirement?
Answer: B. Autoscale Explanation: Autoscale (B) within Azure Virtual Machine Scale Sets enables dynamic adjustment of the VM instances based on real-time demand, ideal for applications like trading platforms that experience variable traffic. This feature ensures that VMs are added during peak demand and removed when demand decreases, optimizing both availability and cost. Manual Scaling (A) would require the company to manually adjust the number of VMs, which is inefficient for high-demand fluctuations. Proximity Placement Groups (C) are designed to reduce latency between VMs but do not provide auto-scaling capabilities. Spot Instances (D) are cost-effective for interruptible workloads but lack the predictability required for continuous trading operations.
42. A machine learning model in Azure requires storage for temporary, high-performance read-write operations. The model is part of an automated pipeline, with each run generating substantial intermediate data. This intermediate data needs to be retained only for the duration of each run. Which Azure storage solution would provide the most efficient performance and cost management for this scenario?
Answer: B. Azure Disk Storage Explanation: Azure Disk Storage (B) provides high-performance block-level storage specifically optimized for scenarios like virtual machines and applications requiring rapid read-write operations, such as temporary data storage for machine learning workflows. It offers SSD options with high throughput and low latency, essential for processing intermediate data. Blob Storage (A), though scalable and cost-effective for storing large datasets, is not optimized for high-frequency read-write operations and lacks the performance level of Disk Storage. File Storage (C) is intended for file-sharing scenarios rather than high-throughput operations, while Table Storage (D) is a NoSQL data store optimized for structured data, not for the high-performance requirements of temporary machine learning data storage.
43. A multinational marketing agency has implemented Azure to manage its identity and access, aiming to streamline user authentication across multiple applications and reduce password fatigue for employees who frequently switch between platforms. Which Azure feature should the agency enable to allow employees to sign in once and access all permitted applications without repeated authentications?
Answer: A. Single Sign-On (SSO) (A) is the most appropriate choice because it enables users to sign in once and gain access to all authorized applications without additional logins, reducing password fatigue and improving the user experience. Conditional Access Policies (B) can help secure access but do not simplify multiple sign-ins across applications. Password Hash Synchronization (C) ensures password consistency between on-premises and cloud environments but does not eliminate the need for multiple logins. Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) (D) enhances security by requiring additional verification but does not simplify repeated authentication across applications.
44. A tech company has multiple on-premises applications across VMware and physical servers that they wish to migrate to Azure. They want to use a single tool to assess, track, and migrate these workloads efficiently. Which tool or suite within Azure would best suit this requirement?
Answer: B. Azure Migrate Explanation: Azure Migrate (B) provides a unified platform for assessing, tracking, and migrating on-premises VMware, Hyper-V, and physical server workloads to Azure, making it an ideal tool for the tech company’s requirement. It offers an integrated approach, allowing seamless assessments and migration tracking, while also covering a variety of migration scenarios. Azure Site Recovery (A) is primarily used for disaster recovery, not workload assessment or migration. Azure Data Box (C) is for physical offline data transfers but does not provide assessment or tracking. Azure Monitor (D) is a post-migration tool for monitoring Azure resources, not for handling assessments or migrations.
45. An engineer has been asked to automate the deployment of multiple Azure resource groups for various departments within the organization. Each resource group must be created with unique naming conventions and specific locations. To achieve this in Azure PowerShell, which command should they use?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: The correct answer is C. New-AzResourceGroup is the Azure PowerShell cmdlet designed to create a new resource group in a specific location, making it ideal for setting up resource groups with customized naming and location requirements. This command allows the engineer to automate the deployment process effectively. New-AzResource (A) is used for creating resources within a group, not the group itself. Set-AzResourceGroup (B) is not a valid cmdlet for creating resource groups, and Add-AzResourceGroup (D) is also incorrect, as it is not a recognized Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
46. A healthcare organization is deploying an Azure SQL Database to store sensitive patient data. For compliance, they need to ensure that access to the database is restricted to private network connections and cannot be accessed over the public internet. Which Azure feature should they use to meet this requirement?
Answer: B. Private Endpoint within a Virtual Network Explanation: A Private Endpoint within a Virtual Network (B) connects the Azure SQL Database to a private IP address, allowing it to be accessed securely from within the organization’s internal network without exposing it to the public internet. This setup aligns with compliance requirements for securing sensitive data by limiting access to private connections only. A Public Endpoint with IP restrictions (A) would still expose the database to the internet, albeit with limited access. A Network Security Group (NSG) with a public IP (C) could restrict access but would still involve public internet exposure. ExpressRoute with VPN Gateway (D) provides a secure connection to Azure but does not directly create a private endpoint for the SQL Database.
47. An IT manager at a financial services company needs to set up Azure MFA for employees who access sensitive data remotely. To enhance security, the manager wants to require a password plus an authentication factor that does not rely on network connectivity, as some employees work in areas with poor signal. Which MFA method best meets this requirement?
Answer: A. Microsoft Authenticator app with code generation (A) is the ideal choice as it generates a code that can be used offline, providing strong authentication without relying on network connectivity. SMS-based authentication (B) and phone call verification (C) both require signal or internet connection, making them unsuitable for employees in areas with poor signal. Email-based authentication (D) is generally not supported as a second factor in Azure MFA, as it does not offer the same level of security or reliability.
48. Alex, an administrator for a growing e-commerce platform, is configuring user access for a team of developers working on sensitive APIs within their Azure environment. Each developer needs access to multiple Azure resources but should only have permissions essential to their role. Alex also needs to maintain centralized control over all user credentials. Which Azure service is best suited to manage these user identities and enforce least-privilege access across the platform?
Answer: A. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) (A) is specifically designed to manage identities and control access to resources. It allows Alex to assign role-based access control (RBAC) policies, ensuring that developers have only the permissions necessary for their specific tasks. Unlike Azure AD, Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) (B) focuses on adding an extra layer of security rather than on managing identities directly. Azure Policy (C) enforces specific rules across resources but does not handle individual user access control. Network Security Groups (NSG) (D) are intended for controlling traffic flow rather than managing user identities or enforcing access controls.
49. A healthcare company needs to implement network segmentation within an Azure virtual network to isolate sensitive data while maintaining secure communication between subnets. Which feature should they configure to allow secure communication between subnets while enforcing traffic control?
Answer: A. Network Security Groups (NSGs) Explanation: Network Security Groups (NSGs) (A) allow the healthcare company to control inbound and outbound traffic between subnets within an Azure virtual network, providing network segmentation while maintaining secure, restricted communication as needed. NSGs enable specific traffic rules, which is ideal for isolating sensitive data. Public IP addresses (B) would expose resources to the internet, compromising security. Point-to-Site VPNs (C) are intended for remote user connections to Azure resources and are not a solution for inter-subnet communication within a VNet. Application Gateway (D) manages web traffic to backend servers but is not suited for inter-subnet traffic control.
50. A healthcare organization seeks a HIPAA-compliant document management solution for storing and sharing patient reports across its network of clinics. They need a service that is fully managed and provides automatic security patches and compliance certifications, allowing them to focus on healthcare operations rather than software upkeep. Which cloud service model should they select to meet these requirements?
Answer: A. Software as a Service (SaaS) Explanation: Software as a Service (SaaS) (A) is well-suited for the healthcare organization’s needs, as it offers a fully managed, secure solution for document management with compliance features for HIPAA and automatic updates, reducing administrative tasks. SaaS applications in this sector often come with built-in regulatory compliance, making it easy for healthcare providers to focus on operations. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) (B) would require the organization to manage the underlying infrastructure, adding unnecessary complexity. Platform as a Service (PaaS) (C) is designed for application development, not fully managed applications. Serverless Computing (D) does not provide the continuous functionality required for document management.
51. Azure architects at a global manufacturing company must determine the best region for deploying a new application that requires minimal latency for their primary customer base in Southeast Asia. The application is critical to ensure real-time data processing and is subject to regulatory compliance restrictions for data residency. Given that the company has subsidiaries across other continents as well, which Azure region should they select to minimize latency and adhere to data residency requirements, while maintaining a high availability infrastructure?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Selecting Southeast Asia (B) is optimal in this scenario as it directly addresses both latency concerns and data residency requirements, providing minimal latency for customers in that region. This region is physically closest to the primary customer base in Southeast Asia, significantly reducing latency in data processing compared to other regions such as West US (A), which is geographically distant and would introduce higher latency and potentially cause regulatory compliance issues with data residency laws in Southeast Asia. East Asia (D) is closer than West US but does not provide the same residency benefits and latency optimization as Southeast Asia. Central India (C), while close, is not as proximate to Southeast Asia as the Southeast Asia region itself, which leads to higher latency and possible residency limitations, making Southeast Asia the most suitable choice.
52. A media company is deploying multiple virtual machines to support a high-volume video streaming service. They need these VMs to communicate securely with one another within Azure without requiring additional security configurations for each instance. Which Azure feature should they utilize to establish secure, private connectivity between these VMs?
Answer: B. Azure Virtual Network (VNet) with subnet grouping Explanation: An Azure Virtual Network (VNet) with subnet grouping (B) allows the media company’s VMs to communicate privately and securely within the Azure network without requiring individual security configurations for each instance. By grouping the VMs in a VNet and within the same subnet, they can communicate internally while being isolated from the public internet. Network Security Groups (NSGs) (A) are useful for controlling traffic but do not inherently establish private connectivity on their own. Assigning Public IPs (C) would expose the VMs to the internet, increasing security risks. An Azure Load Balancer (D) can distribute traffic but does not establish private, secure connectivity between VMs.
53. An IT consulting firm has a project to deploy a web application on Azure that requires high availability. They plan to deploy multiple VMs in a single datacenter to support this application. To minimize service disruption, they need to ensure that no two VMs are affected by a single hardware failure. Which feature should they configure to meet this requirement?
Answer: C. Availability Sets Explanation: Availability Sets (C) ensure that VMs are spread across different fault domains within a single datacenter, reducing the likelihood that a single hardware failure will impact multiple VMs. This setup is critical for applications requiring high availability, as it provides resilience against localized hardware issues. Virtual Machine Scale Sets (A) allow scaling but do not inherently distribute VMs across fault domains for hardware isolation. Network Security Groups (B) control traffic but do not enhance availability. A Load Balancer (D) helps distribute traffic but does not prevent simultaneous hardware failure for multiple VMs within a datacenter.
54. An organization’s security team wants to apply additional safeguards to a set of virtual machines (VMs) critical to business operations. To minimize risks during regular maintenance, they plan to allow only read actions and block any attempts at updates or deletions. Which lock setting should they apply to these VMs to fulfill this requirement?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: A Read-Only Lock (C) will fulfill the requirement by blocking updates and deletions, limiting operations to read-only actions. This is ideal for ensuring that critical VMs cannot be altered during maintenance. Delete Lock (A) only prevents deletions, allowing updates, which does not meet the requirement. Modify Lock (B) and Access Lock (D) do not exist in Azure’s resource lock options, making them incorrect choices.
55. An e-commerce company retains customer purchase history for market analysis. Data from the past month is frequently accessed, while data older than a month is rarely accessed. They need an Azure solution that balances performance and cost efficiency for both recent and older data. What would be the best approach for managing this data in Azure Blob Storage?
Answer: B. Use the Hot Tier for the past month’s data and the Cool Tier for data older than a month Explanation: Storing recent data in the Hot Tier (B) ensures immediate and low-latency access for frequently used purchase data, while moving older data to the Cool Tier balances cost efficiency with moderate access frequency. This strategy keeps storage costs low while retaining access performance. Storing all data in the Hot Tier (A) would result in unnecessarily high costs. Using the Cool Tier exclusively (C) could hinder access to frequently needed data, impacting performance. The Archive Tier (D) would make data retrieval slow and is unsuitable for moderately accessed data that requires faster access.
56. An online education provider is running virtual classrooms with highly variable student attendance. They need to manage costs efficiently, scaling resources up or down based on demand. Which pricing model on Azure would best serve this scenario?
Answer: D. Explanation: The Pay-As-You-Go (D) pricing model suits the education provider as it allows them to scale resources according to real-time demand and only pay for what they use. This model is flexible, enabling resource allocation based on fluctuating attendance, minimizing costs during low-demand periods. (A) Reserved Instances are ideal for predictable, steady workloads and would result in unnecessary costs during low-demand times. (B) Enterprise Agreement offers discounts for large commitments but may not provide the required flexibility for demand fluctuations. (C) Spot Instances are cheaper but unsuitable for virtual classrooms due to their interruptible nature.
57. A healthcare organization needs to provide access to patient data for remote employees but wants to restrict access to users who are authenticated from secure locations and devices only. They are using Microsoft Entra ID Conditional Access. How should they configure Conditional Access policies to meet this requirement?
Answer: A. Configure Conditional Access policies with both location and device compliance conditions (A) is the correct solution, as it allows the organization to restrict access to users authenticating from approved locations and on compliant devices, enhancing data security. Application-specific restrictions (B) control access by application rather than by device compliance or location. Conditional Access for users in trusted IP ranges only (C) provides location security but does not verify device compliance. Enforcing Password Hash Synchronization (D) ensures password consistency but does not address location or device security requirements.
58. A consulting firm is working with multiple clients, each having resources deployed within the firm’s Azure subscription. To bill each client accurately based on their resource usage, what approach should the firm take to identify and allocate costs to each client?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Applying a client-specific tag to each resource (B) allows the consulting firm to categorize resources by client and track usage accurately through Azure Cost Management. By filtering costs by these tags, the firm can generate detailed reports for each client, ensuring accurate billing based on actual usage rather than an even distribution. Although creating separate resource groups (A) may help with organization, it lacks the flexibility that tagging provides for tracking specific costs across shared resources. Calculating the total subscription cost and dividing it evenly (C) is imprecise and doesn’t account for actual usage. Creating separate subscriptions (D) for each client can be an administrative burden and may not be feasible for smaller projects.
59. An e-commerce company recently migrated its website to Microsoft Azure. During a major sales event, they observed a spike in traffic, which led to performance issues and intermittent downtimes. The IT team decides to implement measures to ensure that the site can handle such demand surges in the future without service interruptions. Which of the following strategies would best ensure both high availability and scalability for the website during peak traffic periods?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Option (A) is correct because using Azure Load Balancer to distribute traffic across multiple virtual machines in various regions enhances both high availability and scalability. Azure Load Balancer ensures that traffic is evenly distributed, reducing the load on each VM and providing redundancy if one region experiences issues. This approach aligns with cloud-based best practices for handling peak loads and potential regional failures. Option (B) is incorrect because while autoscaling on a single VM increases resources, it does not address availability across regions, which is critical for minimizing downtime during peak traffic. Option (C) is incorrect because Azure Functions alone might not handle the full scope of an e-commerce site’s dynamic load requirements without integrating with a broader load distribution strategy. Option (D) is incorrect because a single-region deployment with on-premises failover does not utilize Azure's full scalability or high availability capabilities effectively, especially given the cloud's potential for regional redundancy.
60. A healthcare provider wants to migrate patient records stored on on-premises file servers to Azure Files. Due to compliance requirements, they need a solution that allows a gradual migration while ensuring the most recent data is accessible locally. Which Azure tool would best support these requirements?
Answer: A. Azure File Sync Explanation: Azure File Sync (A) enables gradual migration by synchronizing on-premises file servers with Azure Files, allowing the healthcare provider to retain access to recent data locally while progressively migrating data to Azure. This setup meets compliance requirements by providing local access to the most current records while gradually moving older files to the cloud, with options for tiering and cloud storage optimization. AzCopy (B) is a command-line tool suitable for bulk data transfer but lacks continuous synchronization features. Azure Data Box (C) supports offline data transfer, which is unsuitable for gradual migration. Azure Migrate (D) focuses on VM migration and lacks file server synchronization.
61. A retail company needs to periodically sync product image files from its on-premises server to Azure for web access. They want a solution that can automatically handle changes, deletions, and additions to files, ensuring their Azure environment remains up-to-date. Which Azure tool would be most suitable for these requirements?
Answer: C. Azure File Sync Explanation: Azure File Sync (C) allows on-premises servers to sync with Azure Files, handling file changes, additions, and deletions automatically, ensuring that the Azure environment remains current. This is ideal for scenarios where regular synchronization is needed, such as maintaining up-to-date product images for web access. Azure Data Box (A) is an offline, bulk data transfer solution not intended for periodic syncing. AzCopy (B) is a manual command-line tool that doesn’t support continuous synchronization. Azure Storage Explorer (D) provides a GUI for managing and moving files but lacks automated synchronization capabilities, making it less practical for this scenario.
62. A cloud architect is responsible for ensuring that all resources deployed in the organization’s Azure environment comply with regulatory requirements, such as only using certain regions for data residency. They need a solution to enforce this rule by blocking non-compliant deployments. Which tool would best allow the architect to prevent deployments in unauthorized regions?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Azure Policy (B) is the correct solution, as it can enforce rules and standards, such as restricting deployments to specific regions. By defining policies, Azure Policy blocks non-compliant resources from being created in unauthorized regions, ensuring compliance at deployment time. Azure Resource Locks (A) only prevent resource modifications or deletions and do not enforce deployment rules. Role-Based Access Control (C) manages user permissions for accessing resources but cannot restrict resources based on geographic locations. Azure Blueprints (D) can incorporate policies as part of a deployment strategy but primarily acts as a package of configuration, rather than enforcing deployment restrictions dynamically.
63. A multinational corporation wants to migrate its critical business applications to Azure and needs to understand how Azure datacenters can support their high availability and disaster recovery requirements. Which feature of Azure datacenters would best address this need?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The global distribution of Azure datacenters in paired regions (B) supports high availability and disaster recovery by ensuring that data and applications are replicated across geographically separate datacenters, minimizing the risk of complete service disruption in case of a regional outage. This feature provides redundancy that is critical for disaster recovery and availability across different geographic areas. Option A (Virtual Networks within a single datacenter) would restrict redundancy to one location, while Option C (Dedicated physical servers within one datacenter) lacks geographic redundancy. Option D (Locally redundant storage within a single datacenter) also confines data protection within one physical location, increasing vulnerability in case of datacenter failure, making B the most resilient solution.
64. An organization wants to avoid unexpected Azure charges by setting up notifications to alert their IT team when their cloud spending reaches 80% of the monthly budget. Which Azure feature should they implement to receive timely alerts before exceeding their budget?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Azure Cost Management Alerts (A) allow organizations to set up notifications based on spending thresholds, such as 80% of the budget, providing proactive alerts to the IT team to help prevent overspending. This feature is specifically designed for monitoring and controlling cloud costs by sending alerts when budgeted limits are approached, allowing timely actions to reduce or adjust resource usage. Azure Policy Alerts (B) apply policies for governance but don’t monitor spending or provide budget alerts. Azure Security Center Notifications (C) are focused on security alerts, not financial ones. Azure Monitor Alerts (D) monitor metrics and events but are not designed specifically for tracking cloud spending thresholds.
65. A technology startup is designing its infrastructure for a new web application and requires an environment that allows them to manage and control all aspects of the virtual machines, including the OS, storage, and network configuration. Their DevOps team wants flexibility in customizing each VM based on the workload's needs but also aims to minimize long-term commitments to specific hardware. Which cloud service model in Azure best fits these requirements?
Answer: B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) (B) is the appropriate model here because it provides the startup with complete control over the virtual machines, allowing them to customize the operating system, storage, and network configurations to match specific workload requirements. Unlike PaaS (A), which abstracts much of this control to focus on application development, IaaS allows for a high degree of management flexibility and scalability, suiting the DevOps team's goal of tailoring VMs as needed. Software as a Service (SaaS) (C) offers fully managed applications, which does not meet the requirement for customizable infrastructure. Serverless Computing (D) abstracts infrastructure management entirely, allowing code execution without VM management, which is unsuitable for a scenario requiring full VM control.
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