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CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Practice Exam 2
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1. You have various data types and security measures. Match each data type with the appropriate security measure.
A VPN secures data in transit to cloud services. Encryption is essential for protecting stored PII. TLS is used to secure emails in transit. Access control is critical for safeguarding sensitive financial records.
2. A large corporation with multiple branches worldwide is reconsidering its cybersecurity strategy, which is currently highly decentralized. The corporation has experienced inconsistencies in security practices across its branches, leading to vulnerabilities. What should be the PRIMARY focus to enhance cybersecurity in a more centralized manner?
The primary focus should be on implementing a uniform cybersecurity policy across all branches (Option A). This centralized approach ensures consistency in security practices, reduces vulnerabilities arising from varied strategies, and provides a cohesive defense against cyber threats. Allowing each branch to develop independent strategies (Option B) perpetuates the current issue of inconsistency. Investing in unique technologies for each branch (Option C) may not address the need for standardized policies and procedures. Focusing only on high-threat regions (Option D) neglects the security needs of other branches and can lead to uneven protection.
3. A multinational corporation is audited for compliance with the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR). The audit uncovers that the corporation lacks a clear mechanism for users to consent to data collection and processing. This issue primarily affects which GDPR principle?
The GDPR emphasizes the importance of lawfulness, fairness, and transparency in data processing activities. A key aspect of this principle is obtaining clear and affirmative consent from individuals before collecting and processing their personal data. The lack of a clear consent mechanism in the multinational corporation's practices signifies a breach of this principle, as it fails to ensure lawful, fair, and transparent handling of user data. Data minimization (Option A) relates to collecting only necessary data, while integrity and confidentiality (Option C) focus on securing the data. Accountability (Option D) is about demonstrating compliance with GDPR, but the specific issue in this scenario is related to the principle of lawfulness, fairness, and transparency.
4. A large organization is recovering from a widespread worm infection that caused significant network disruption. To enhance their defense against future worm attacks, which TWO of the following measures should the organization prioritize? (SELECT TWO)
To defend against future worm attacks, it's essential to focus on measures that address the typical propagation methods and vulnerabilities exploited by worms. Regularly updating antivirus software (Option A) is crucial as it helps in detecting and preventing worm infections by identifying known malicious patterns and behaviors. Enforcing a comprehensive patch management policy (Option D) is also critical, as many worms exploit known vulnerabilities in software. Patching these vulnerabilities promptly reduces the attack surface and prevents worms from gaining a foothold. Implementing strict access controls (Option B) and conducting employee training (Option C) are important security measures, but they are less directly related to preventing worm infections, which often exploit technical vulnerabilities rather than relying on user actions.
5. An employee of a financial firm receives a phone call from an individual claiming to be from the IT department. The caller requests the employee's login credentials to perform an urgent system update. The employee provides the information, and shortly after, unauthorized transactions are detected in the system. This incident is an example of which type of voice call-based attack?
Vishing, or voice phishing, is a type of social engineering attack carried out through voice calls, where attackers impersonate a trusted entity to deceive individuals into revealing sensitive information. In this scenario, the attacker posing as an IT department member exploits the trust and urgency to obtain the employee's login credentials, leading to unauthorized system access. This method focuses on manipulating human psychology rather than exploiting technical vulnerabilities, distinguishing it from other types of attacks. Phreaking (A) involves manipulating telephone systems to make free calls or gain unauthorized access to phone networks, eavesdropping (B) is the act of secretly listening to private conversations, and toll fraud (D) is the unauthorized use of a company's telephone system to make long-distance calls, none of which directly align with the described attack.
6. A network security analyst at a company notices that confidential information is being leaked. After an investigation, it is discovered that an attacker is intercepting and modifying data packets as they travel across the network. This type of attack is known as an on-path attack. What should be the FIRST action the analyst should take to mitigate this attack?
The most effective first action to mitigate an on-path attack, where data packets are being intercepted and modified, is to implement secure protocols like HTTPS (Option B). These protocols encrypt data in transit, making it difficult for attackers to read or alter the information. Changing user passwords (Option A) is important for overall security but does not address the issue of data interception. Installing an advanced IDS (Option C) can help detect suspicious activities but does not prevent the interception and modification of data. Physically securing the network infrastructure (Option D) is essential, but the attack might be occurring at any point along the data path, not necessarily within the physical premises of the company.
7. A healthcare organization is enhancing its network architecture to support its critical online services. The IT team is planning to deploy a load balancer. Which of the following is an important consideration when configuring the load balancer to ensure high availability and security for the organization's services?
For a healthcare organization requiring both high availability and security for its online services, configuring the load balancer to perform SSL offloading (Option C) is a significant consideration. SSL offloading involves handling the decryption of SSL/TLS-encrypted traffic at the load balancer, which reduces the processing load on the backend servers. This configuration enhances the performance and efficiency of the servers, allowing them to handle more user requests and improving overall availability. Additionally, it maintains security by ensuring encrypted communication. A round-robin algorithm (Option A) is a common method for distributing traffic but does not specifically address the security aspect. Configuring the load balancer as primary storage (Option B) is not its intended function, and filtering spam emails (Option D) is typically the role of email security systems, not load balancers.
8. A software company uses hashing to verify the integrity of its software updates before distribution. When an update is ready, a hash value is generated and later compared with the hash value of the downloaded update. How does hashing enhance the security of the software update process in this scenario?
In the context of a software company distributing updates, hashing plays a crucial role in ensuring the integrity of the software updates. Hashing involves generating a unique hash value (a fixed-size string of characters) from the software update's data. This hash value acts as a digital fingerprint of the update. When users download the update, they can generate a hash value from the downloaded file and compare it to the original hash value provided by the software company. If the hash values match, it confirms that the update has not been altered or tampered with during transmission. This process ensures that the software update remains intact and trustworthy, safeguarding against potential threats like malware insertion or data corruption.
9. A software development company uses a version control system to manage its source code, which includes both human-readable scripts and non-human-readable compiled binaries. The company is concerned about the potential theft or unauthorized access to its codebase. What is the BEST security practice to safeguard the source code repository containing both types of data?
Enforcing role-based access controls to the source code repository is an effective way to safeguard both human-readable scripts and non-human-readable compiled binaries. This approach ensures that access to the repository is granted based on the roles and responsibilities of users, allowing only authorized personnel to access the sensitive codebase. It provides a targeted and granular level of security, which is essential for protecting valuable intellectual property like source code. While regular backups (A), penetration testing (C), and encrypting network traffic (D) are important security practices, they do not specifically address the control of access to the code repository in the same direct manner as role-based access controls.
10. An organization is implementing security measures at different layers of its network architecture. The IT team needs to understand the distinction between Layer 4 and Layer 7 security mechanisms. What is a primary difference in how Layer 4 and Layer 7 security devices operate, and how does this impact their functionality in network security?
The primary difference between Layer 4 and Layer 7 security devices lies in the OSI model layers at which they operate and the type of traffic they manage (Option B). Layer 4 security devices function at the transport layer (Layer 4 of the OSI model) and primarily manage traffic based on TCP/UDP ports and protocols. This level of security is concerned with ensuring the efficient and secure transport of data between hosts. In contrast, Layer 7 security devices operate at the application layer (Layer 7 of the OSI model) and focus on inspecting and managing the content of the traffic, as well as application-specific protocols and services. This includes analyzing HTTP requests, inspecting web content, and enforcing application-level policies. Layer 4 devices do not focus on data encryption (Option A), nor do they provide physical security (Option C), and Layer 7 devices do not handle network routing. Layer 4 and Layer 7 devices are not identical in functionality (Option D), as they target different aspects of network traffic and security.
11. A financial consulting firm has recently implemented a CYOD policy, providing its employees with a choice of laptops and tablets for their work. The firm is particularly concerned about protecting sensitive financial data and maintaining regulatory compliance. Which TWO of the following security measures should be prioritized to address these concerns in the CYOD environment? (SELECT TWO)
Enforcing the use of strong passwords and multi-factor authentication (A) is crucial in a CYOD environment to ensure that only authorized users can access the devices and the sensitive financial data they contain. This measure significantly enhances security and helps maintain regulatory compliance. Implementing a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) (C) allows employees to access sensitive data in a controlled and secure manner, with data processing and storage occurring on secure, centralized servers rather than on the individual CYOD devices. This approach minimizes the risk of data breaches and loss. While installing standardized security software (B) is important, it needs to be tailored to the specific needs and capabilities of each device model. Requiring exclusively wired connections (D) is impractical and does not align with the flexibility offered by a CYOD policy.
12. A hospital implements record-level encryption in its electronic health record (EHR) system to secure patient data. In which of the following scenarios is record-level encryption most beneficial? (SELECT TWO)
Record-level encryption in a hospital's electronic health record (EHR) system is crucial for protecting sensitive patient information and ensuring regulatory compliance. Firstly, encrypting individual patient records ensures that specific health information, such as diagnoses, treatment plans, and personal identifiers, is secured against unauthorized access. This granularity of protection is vital for safeguarding patient confidentiality and preventing data breaches in a healthcare setting. Secondly, many health data privacy regulations, such as HIPAA in the United States, require the protection of patient information. By implementing record-level encryption, the hospital not only enhances the security of patient data but also ensures compliance with these regulations, which mandate strict safeguards for health information privacy. Both scenarios highlight the importance of record-level encryption in protecting patient health information and adhering to legal and ethical standards in healthcare data management.
13. A company stores sensitive customer information, including personal identification numbers and credit card details, on its internal servers. The company is reviewing its security policies to enhance the protection of this data while it is at rest. Which of the following security measures would be MOST effective in protecting the sensitive data at rest on the company's servers?
Applying full disk encryption to the servers is the most effective measure for protecting sensitive data at rest. Full disk encryption ensures that all data stored on the servers, including customer personal identification numbers and credit card details, is encrypted and unreadable without the proper decryption key. This measure provides a high level of security by protecting the data from unauthorized access or theft, particularly in the event of a physical breach or server theft. While a robust firewall (A), strong password policies (B), and antivirus software (D) are important aspects of a comprehensive security strategy, they do not specifically address the protection of data at rest in the same way that full disk encryption does.
14. A large corporation recently experienced a network breach where attackers exploited vulnerabilities in the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service running on their mail server. As part of the response, the security team decides to review and update the firewall settings related to ports and protocols. Considering the need to maintain email functionality while enhancing security, which of the following firewall modifications would be most effective?
In this scenario, the goal is to enhance security without disrupting email functionality. Option A, blocking all SMTP traffic, would prevent the mail server from functioning properly, disrupting email services. Option C, replacing SMTP with a more secure protocol, could enhance security but would require significant changes to the email infrastructure and may not be immediately feasible. Option D, enabling logging, is a good security practice but does not prevent exploitation of vulnerabilities. The most effective solution is Option B, restricting SMTP traffic to only allow connections from trusted external IP addresses. This approach reduces the attack surface by limiting potential attackers' access to the SMTP service while allowing legitimate email traffic.
15. During a company-wide security training session, employees are informed about a recent incident where a manager received a call from an individual impersonating a technology vendor. The caller requested immediate remote access to the company's network to resolve a critical issue. The manager complied, leading to a security breach. What security practice could have prevented this vishing attack?
Establishing a process for verifying the authenticity of callers (C) is the security practice that could have prevented this vishing attack. By having a protocol in place to confirm the identity of callers before providing sensitive information or access, employees can better protect against vishing attempts. This protocol might include calling back through a known official number, using pre-arranged questions or codes, or confirming the request through alternative communication channels. While conducting regular security awareness training (B) is important, it needs to be coupled with specific procedures like caller verification. Implementing strong password policies (A) and using caller ID verification (D) are valuable security measures, but they are less effective in situations where attackers use social engineering to gain direct access or information, as in this vishing scenario.
16. A company's security team discovers that one of their critical applications was compromised through a malicious update. The team is tasked with implementing measures to protect against similar incidents in the future. Which of the following measures should be included in their security strategy? (SELECT TWO)
Implementing a whitelist of approved software sources (Option B) is an effective measure to protect against malicious updates. This approach ensures that updates can only be obtained from trusted, verified sources, reducing the risk of installing compromised software. Using a secure, dedicated update server (Option D) provides an additional layer of security by controlling and monitoring the source and integrity of updates, further mitigating the risk of malicious updates. Conducting regular security audits of the application (Option A) is a good practice but may not directly address the specific threat of malicious updates. Restricting internet access for application servers (Option C) can improve overall security but is not specifically targeted at preventing malicious updates.
17. A large enterprise is transitioning its network infrastructure to Software-Defined Networking (SDN) to improve agility and manageability. While SDN offers several benefits, the IT security team is concerned about the potential security risks of centralizing network control. In this scenario, which of the following measures is most critical for enhancing the security of the SDN infrastructure?
In an SDN environment, the SDN controllers are the central point of network management and control, making them a critical component to secure. Implementing robust authentication and access controls for the SDN controllers (Option D) is essential to protect against unauthorized access and potential attacks. This ensures that only authorized personnel can modify network configurations and policies, thereby maintaining the integrity and security of the entire network. While strong encryption for data-in-transit (Option B) is important, it does not directly address the risks associated with the centralization of network control in SDN. Reverting to traditional networking methods for sensitive data (Option A) may undermine the benefits of SDN. Deploying additional physical routers and switches (Option C) does not enhance the security of the SDN controllers and may add unnecessary complexity.
18. An organization is retiring old workstations as part of an IT upgrade. The IT team follows a strict protocol to securely erase all data and perform a factory reset on each workstation before disposal. What is the key reason for implementing these decommissioning steps?
The key reason for implementing secure data erasure and factory reset procedures during the decommissioning of old workstations is to safeguard against the recovery of proprietary data. By thoroughly erasing all data and resetting the workstations, the organization ensures that sensitive or proprietary information cannot be retrieved by subsequent users, thereby protecting data confidentiality and security. While facilitating resale or donation (Option B) and reducing maintenance costs (Option D) may be secondary considerations, the primary focus is on preventing unauthorized access to and recovery of sensitive data. Ensuring compatibility with new IT infrastructure (Option A) is not a direct concern in the decommissioning process.
19. An organization's website experiences variable traffic, with surges during specific events. To handle this efficiently, the IT department must decide between implementing load balancing or clustering. Given the need to manage traffic efficiently without overburdening any single server, which technology is more suitable for dynamically distributing incoming web traffic?
Load balancing is the appropriate technology for dynamically distributing incoming web traffic, especially in scenarios with variable traffic. It helps in efficiently managing the load by distributing incoming network traffic across multiple servers, preventing any single server from becoming a bottleneck. This ensures that the web application remains responsive even during traffic surges. Clustering, while beneficial for high availability and fault tolerance, does not primarily focus on traffic distribution. Therefore, in the context of efficiently managing variable traffic and preventing server overburdening, option A, Load Balancing, is the correct answer.
20. What are key considerations for organizations when transferring IT security risks to third parties, such as through outsourcing or insurance? (SELECT TWO)
When transferring IT security risks to third parties, organizations must consider factors that ensure the effectiveness and reliability of the risk transfer. Assessing the financial stability and reliability of the third party (Option A) is crucial, as it indicates the third party's ability to fulfill its obligations, particularly in the event of a security incident or claim. A financially stable and reliable third party is more likely to provide consistent and dependable services, reducing the risk to the organization. Evaluating the third party's compliance with industry standards and best practices (Option C) is also important. This involves verifying that the third party adheres to relevant security standards, regulations, and best practices, ensuring that they can effectively manage and mitigate the transferred risks. While seamless integration of services (Option B) and potential cost savings (Option D) are important considerations in outsourcing or purchasing insurance, they are secondary to the critical need for financial reliability and compliance with standards, which are key to the successful transfer of IT security risks.
21. A company utilizes virtualization for its server infrastructure. During a security audit, it is found that the virtualization software is outdated and has known vulnerabilities. The IT manager is concerned about the potential for attackers to exploit these vulnerabilities to perform a VM escape. What is the most effective countermeasure to protect against VM escape vulnerabilities?
The most effective countermeasure to protect against VM escape vulnerabilities in the scenario described is regularly updating virtualization software (Option C). Keeping the virtualization software up-to-date ensures that known vulnerabilities are patched, reducing the risk of attackers exploiting these vulnerabilities to perform a VM escape. Network segmentation (Option A) and encrypting data at rest and in transit (Option D) are important security practices but do not directly address the specific risk of VM escape. Implementing strong user authentication (Option B) improves access control but does not mitigate the vulnerabilities in the virtualization software that could allow a VM escape.
22. A multinational corporation operates in several European countries, each with its own local data protection regulations, in addition to the overarching GDPR requirements. During a security audit, it was found that the corporation's policies were only aligned with GDPR, neglecting some local regulations. What is the MOST effective approach to ensure full legal compliance across all operations?
The most effective approach to ensure full legal compliance is to consult with legal experts in each country to align the corporation's policies with both GDPR and local data protection regulations (Option B). This ensures that the corporation's policies are tailored to meet the specific legal requirements in each jurisdiction, thereby avoiding the risk of non-compliance. While harmonizing policies with GDPR (Option A) is important, it does not address the nuances of local regulations. Creating a universal policy that ignores local variations (Option C) could lead to non-compliance in specific countries. Focusing on the strictest regulations (Option D) may not adequately address all local legal requirements.
23. An e-commerce company is implementing a new online payment system and is focused on ensuring the security of customer payment information. In this context, which TWO of the following encryption practices should be prioritized in the new payment system? (SELECT TWO)
Encrypting data in transit using SSL/TLS protocols (Option A) is essential for securing customer payment information during online transactions, protecting the data from being intercepted or compromised. Utilizing end-to-end encryption for all customer transactions (Option C) ensures that payment information is encrypted from the customer's device all the way to the company's server, providing a high level of security throughout the transaction process. Storing customer payment information in an unencrypted format (Option B) is highly risky and goes against security best practices. Relying solely on the payment gateway's encryption standards (Option D) is not sufficient, as the company also has a responsibility to ensure the security of customer data in its own systems.
24. A large corporation has implemented automated guard rails in its cloud environment to enforce security policies. Despite this, a recent audit revealed that several cloud storage buckets containing sensitive data were publicly accessible. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this security lapse?
The scenario indicates a failure in enforcing security policies regarding access to cloud storage, which is primarily the responsibility of the automated guard rails. If these guard rails are not properly configured to enforce access controls, they may not effectively restrict public access to sensitive data stored in cloud buckets. This oversight can lead to the kind of security lapse mentioned in the audit. Option A, while important, does not directly address the issue of enforcing security policies through automation. Option B is more related to network security, and Option D focuses on endpoint security, neither of which directly relates to the enforcement of access controls on cloud storage.
25. A corporate IT department conducts an audit of company computers and decides to remove all unnecessary software applications. Following this action, the frequency of malware infections significantly decreases. What is the primary security advantage of removing unnecessary software from company computers?
The primary security advantage of removing unnecessary software from company computers is to reduce the risk of malware infections by minimizing attack vectors. Unnecessary or unused software can be exploited as a potential entry point for malware and other cyber threats. By removing these applications, the IT department effectively reduces the number of vulnerabilities that could be targeted by attackers, thereby decreasing the likelihood of malware infections. This proactive measure enhances the overall security of the IT infrastructure. While freeing up storage space and enhancing performance (Option A), simplifying the user interface (Option C), and streamlining software updates (Option D) are beneficial, the key objective in this context is to improve security by reducing potential vulnerabilities.
26. A security team performs an assessment in an unknown environment at a logistics company and identifies two major security concerns: the absence of a disaster recovery plan and weak physical security at the data storage facilities. Which TWO of the following actions should the logistics company prioritize to address these concerns? (SELECT TWO)
The assessment in the unknown environment of a logistics company revealed two critical security concerns: the lack of a disaster recovery plan and weak physical security at data storage facilities. To address these specific issues, the company should prioritize developing and implementing a comprehensive disaster recovery plan (Option A). This plan is crucial for ensuring business continuity and data integrity in the event of a disaster. Additionally, enhancing physical security measures at the data storage facilities (Option C) is essential to protect against unauthorized access, theft, or damage to critical data. Upgrading the ERP software (Option B) may improve business operations but does not directly address the identified security concerns. Implementing a cybersecurity training program for employees (Option D) is important for overall security awareness but does not specifically target the absence of a disaster recovery plan and weak physical security.
27. You are implementing cryptographic algorithms to secure communication on a network. Match each cryptographic algorithm with its corresponding description.
28. An IT security analyst at a company notices an unusual increase in log entries during off-hours, which is atypical for the organization's normal operations. The out-of-cycle logging raises concerns about potential unauthorized activities or system malfunctions. What is the MOST effective immediate action the analyst should take to investigate this anomaly?
The most effective immediate action to investigate the anomaly of out-of-cycle logging is to analyze the log entries (Option B). This involves reviewing the logs for any signs of unusual or unauthorized activities that could indicate a security breach or system malfunction. Implementing stricter access controls (Option A) is a good security practice but does not address the immediate need to understand the cause of the increased logging. Increasing the logging level (Option C) might provide more detailed information but can also generate an overwhelming amount of data and may not be necessary to identify the issue. Conducting a company-wide password reset (Option D) is disruptive and may not be relevant if the cause of the logging is unrelated to account security.
29. An online retail company relies heavily on its e-commerce platform and needs to minimize downtime during peak shopping seasons. The company is considering using data replication for its critical systems. How does data replication contribute to minimizing downtime for the company's e-commerce platform?
Data replication contributes to minimizing downtime for an online retail company's e-commerce platform by providing real-time or near-real-time copies of data across multiple servers or locations (A). This approach ensures that if one server or location experiences an issue, the replicated data on other servers or locations can be immediately accessed, allowing the e-commerce platform to continue operating with minimal disruption. Data replication focuses on data availability and redundancy rather than enhancing server processing speed (B), automatically updating software (C), or reducing physical space for servers (D). Therefore, the key advantage of data replication in this context is A) Providing real-time or near-real-time copies of data to maintain platform availability and minimize downtime.
30. A multinational corporation with extensive research and development in cutting-edge technology experienced two separate espionage incidents. In the first incident, trade secrets and proprietary research were stolen and traced to a competitor. In the second incident, confidential communication between top executives was intercepted, revealing strategic business plans. The attack methods were discreet and focused on data collection. Which TWO of the following motivations are most likely behind these espionage incidents? (SELECT TWO)
In the first incident, the theft of trade secrets and proprietary research by a competitor suggests industrial espionage (Option A). The motivation here is to gain a competitive advantage by acquiring confidential information about cutting-edge technology. In the second incident, the interception of confidential communication between executives points to state-sponsored espionage (Option B). Such actors are often interested in strategic business plans for national strategic interests. Both incidents involve discreet methods focused on data collection, aligning with espionage objectives. The scenarios are less indicative of motivations for financial gain (Option C) or corporate sabotage (Option D), which typically involve different types of attacks and objectives.
31. A multinational corporation operates in several countries and must comply with various global cybersecurity standards and regulations. To ensure effective global compliance, which actions should the corporation take? (SELECT TWO)
Implementing a centralized compliance management system (Option A) is crucial for a multinational corporation to effectively track and adhere to various global cybersecurity standards and regulations. This system provides a unified platform for managing compliance across different countries, ensuring that all local and international requirements are met. Regularly training employees on global cybersecurity standards and best practices (Option C) is essential for building a culture of security awareness and ensuring that staff members understand their role in maintaining compliance. This training helps prevent security breaches and ensures adherence to global standards. Focusing solely on the standards of the headquarters country (Option B) is insufficient, as it does not consider the specific regulations of other countries where the corporation operates. Assuming that adherence to a single global standard (Option D) is sufficient overlooks the nuances and specific requirements of national regulations. Options A and C represent a comprehensive approach to global cybersecurity compliance, combining effective management systems with ongoing employee training.
32. To enhance the security of Industrial Control Systems (ICS) and Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) networks, which two of the following practices should be prioritized? (SELECT TWO)
Regularly performing vulnerability assessments and penetration testing on ICS/SCADA systems (Option B) is essential for identifying potential security weaknesses and mitigating risks. These assessments help in understanding the vulnerabilities of the systems and preparing for potential cyber threats. Implementing strict access control measures for both physical and network access to ICS/SCADA components (Option D) is also crucial. Restricting access ensures that only authorized personnel can interact with these systems, reducing the risk of unauthorized manipulation or data breaches. Integrating ICS/SCADA networks with general-purpose IT networks (Option A) can create security risks and is generally not advisable due to the different nature and requirements of these systems. Allowing unrestricted internet access from ICS/SCADA devices (Option C) is a significant security risk and should be avoided; internet access should be carefully managed and controlled.
33. A small business has recently contracted with a third-party vendor to manage its network infrastructure. The vendor will be responsible for maintaining network security, hardware, and software updates. In this context, which of the following should the small business prioritize to maintain a secure and reliable network environment?
When outsourcing network management to a third-party vendor, establishing a clear service level agreement (SLA) with defined security responsibilities (Option B) is crucial. An SLA should detail the roles and responsibilities of both the small business and the vendor, including specific security measures, response times, hardware and software maintenance protocols, and incident response procedures. This ensures that both parties have a clear understanding of their obligations and the standards that must be maintained. Delegating all security responsibilities to the vendor (Option A) is risky, as it's important for the business to retain some level of oversight and control. Choosing a vendor based solely on a recommendation (Option C) may overlook critical due diligence steps such as assessing the vendor's security capabilities. While cost savings (Option D) are a factor in vendor selection, focusing exclusively on this aspect can lead to compromises in security and service quality.
34. An organization implements full-disk encryption on its workstations as part of its data protection strategy. The workstations are equipped with TPM chips. What role does the TPM play in supporting full-disk encryption on these workstations?
In the context of implementing full-disk encryption on workstations, the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) plays a vital role in enhancing the security of the encryption process. The TPM securely stores the encryption keys used for disk encryption, protecting them from being accessed or extracted by unauthorized individuals. This secure storage is particularly important for maintaining the integrity of the encryption system, as the encryption keys are the crucial elements for encrypting and decrypting the disk's data. By storing these keys in the TPM, the organization ensures that even if a workstation is physically compromised, the data on the disk remains protected and inaccessible without the proper authentication. The TPM thus adds an additional layer of security to the full-disk encryption, safeguarding sensitive organizational data.
35. In preparation for potential cybersecurity incidents, a financial organization is planning to conduct training for its employees. To maximize the effectiveness of the training program, which TWO of the following components should be prioritized? (SELECT TWO)
To maximize the effectiveness of a cybersecurity training program in a financial organization, it is important to focus on the specific security risks and scenarios relevant to the financial sector (Option A). This ensures that the training is directly applicable to the types of threats and challenges the employees are most likely to encounter. Additionally, offering role-based training tailored to the responsibilities of different employee groups (Option C) ensures that each group receives the most relevant and practical information for their specific roles, enhancing the overall security posture of the organization. While general information about the history of cybersecurity (Option B) and the use of personal devices and social media (Option D) are important, they are less critical than focusing on sector-specific risks and role-based training for effective incident response preparation.
36. A cybersecurity analyst is tasked with acquiring data from a mobile device as part of an investigation into unauthorized access to corporate data. What should be the analyst's FIRST action to ensure a proper and forensically sound acquisition of the data from the mobile device?
The first action when acquiring data from a mobile device in a forensic investigation is to place the device in airplane mode (Option B). This prevents any remote access, data alteration, or wiping commands that could compromise the evidence. It is crucial to preserve the current state of the device and its data before any acquisition or analysis begins. Connecting the device to a network (Option A) or starting data extraction immediately (Option D) may expose it to potential alterations. Performing a factory reset (Option C) would completely erase the data and is counterproductive to the acquisition process.
37. A web application in a financial organization is experiencing slow response times. Analysis reveals an unusual pattern of database queries being executed, including several that involve large data extractions. What is the MOST likely security concern indicated by this pattern, and what should be the initial response?
The unusual pattern of database queries, especially those involving large data extractions, strongly suggests a SQL Injection attack. This type of attack manipulates a web application's database interactions to execute unauthorized queries. Reviewing and adjusting the web application firewall (WAF) settings can help to identify and mitigate such attacks. Option B (DDoS attack) typically affects network resources rather than database interactions. Option C (Insider threat) and Option D (Misconfiguration) could be possible causes but are less likely given the specific pattern of database queries observed.
38. A corporation is planning to acquire a smaller company and has just completed a cybersecurity audit of the target company. The audit reveals several security vulnerabilities. In terms of due diligence and care, what should be the corporation's next step before proceeding with the acquisition?
The most appropriate action in terms of due diligence and care is for the corporation to request that the target company addresses the vulnerabilities before finalizing the acquisition (Option B). This approach ensures that the corporation is not taking on unnecessary cybersecurity risks and is acting responsibly in protecting its assets and information. Addressing these vulnerabilities prior to acquisition can prevent potential security incidents and financial losses. Proceeding with the acquisition without addressing the vulnerabilities (Option A) would be a neglect of due diligence and could lead to significant risks. Reducing the offer price (Option C) may account for the cost of fixing vulnerabilities but does not ensure that they will be addressed. Conducting a second audit (Option D) might be useful for verification purposes but does not directly address the vulnerabilities identified in the first audit. Requesting remediation of vulnerabilities demonstrates a commitment to thorough due diligence and responsible business practices.
39. An organization implements a new policy requiring employees to use smart cards along with their passwords for accessing the company's secure systems. This change is in response to a recent incident where several accounts were compromised due to weak passwords. What type of authentication is being utilized by the organization to improve its security posture?
Two-factor authentication (2FA) involves using two different types of authentication methods for verifying a user's identity. In this case, the organization is combining something the user knows (password) with something the user has (smart card). This approach greatly enhances security by adding an extra layer of defense. If a password is compromised, the attacker still needs the smart card to gain access, making unauthorized access significantly more difficult. 2FA is a practical and effective way to strengthen security, especially in response to incidents involving weak or compromised passwords.
40. A small business adopts a cloud-based password manager to improve security and manage passwords more effectively. After implementation, the business owner is concerned about the security of storing all passwords in one place. What feature should the business owner look for in a password manager to alleviate this concern?
To alleviate concerns about the security of storing all passwords in one place, the business owner should look for a password manager that features end-to-end encryption of passwords stored in the password manager (Option B). End-to-end encryption ensures that passwords are encrypted on the user's device before being sent to the cloud for storage, and they remain encrypted until they are decrypted on an authorized user's device. This significantly enhances the security of the stored passwords. Options A, C, and D are beneficial features of a password manager but do not directly address the concern of secure storage of passwords.
41. A financial services company is integrating Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) into its network infrastructure to modernize security and networking capabilities. The CISO is considering various components and features that are essential to maximize the effectiveness of SASE. Which TWO of the following elements should be prioritized in the SASE implementation for optimal security and performance? (SELECT TWO)
Incorporating a cloud access security broker (CASB) (Option A) and deploying secure web gateways (SWG) (Option C) are crucial elements for maximizing the effectiveness of Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) in a financial services company. A CASB is essential for monitoring and securing the use of cloud-based applications, providing visibility, compliance, data security, and threat protection in cloud environments. This is especially important for financial institutions that increasingly rely on cloud services. Secure web gateways provide safe and compliant internet access and web browsing, which is critical for preventing web-based threats and enforcing internet usage policies. These elements are key components of SASE, aligning with its goal to integrate networking and security services in a cloud-centric manner. Implementing traditional hardware-based firewalls (Option B) at each branch office contradicts the cloud-native approach of SASE. High-capacity data storage (Option D) within SASE is not a primary feature or focus of SASE architecture, which is more oriented towards network and security services.
42. A healthcare organization implements a key escrow system to manage encryption keys for its patient data. Following the departure of an employee who had access to sensitive patient information, the IT department needs to ensure data security. How does key escrow facilitate maintaining data security in this scenario?
Key escrow is a process where encryption keys are securely held by a third party or a dedicated system within an organization, allowing authorized personnel to access these keys under specific circumstances. In this scenario, when an employee who had access to sensitive data leaves the organization, key escrow enables the IT department to access the encryption keys used by the employee. This access is crucial for scenarios where data needs to be decrypted for continuity of care, audits, or legal reasons. The key escrow system ensures that the organization can maintain the security and accessibility of encrypted patient data, even when individual employees who had access to that data are no longer with the organization.
43. An enterprise is deploying a new internal application that requires employees to access sensitive company data. The IT department needs to choose an authentication protocol that ensures data security while facilitating easy access for authorized employees. What is the MOST suitable authentication protocol for this scenario, balancing security and accessibility?
Implementing Single Sign-On (SSO) (A) is the most suitable authentication protocol for balancing security and accessibility in this scenario. SSO allows employees to access multiple applications, including the new internal application, with a single set of credentials, reducing the complexity of managing multiple passwords while maintaining a secure authentication process. RADIUS (B) is more focused on network access and might not be as streamlined for application access. CHAP (C) is used for network authentication but does not provide the same level of user convenience as SSO. PKI (D) is important for secure communications but may be more complex than necessary for user authentication to an internal application.
44. An organization is enhancing the security of its email server. The server currently uses Port 25 for SMTP, which does not offer encryption. To improve email security, which port should the organization configure for secure email transmission using SMTP with TLS (Transport Layer Security)?
For enhancing the security of an email server, especially for SMTP with TLS, selecting the correct port is essential. Option A, Port 110, is used for POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) and is not suitable for SMTP traffic. Option B, Port 143, is used for IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) and, like Port 110, is not designed for SMTP. Option D, Port 80, is the standard port for HTTP and is not appropriate for secure email transmission. The most suitable port for secure SMTP transmission with TLS is Option C, Port 587. Port 587 is recommended for SMTP submission and is specifically designed to work with client-to-server email submissions, particularly when using TLS for encryption. This port ensures that emails are transmitted securely, thereby enhancing the overall security of the email server.
45. A consumer receives an email that appears to be from a well-known online retailer, offering an exclusive promotion. The email contains a link to a website that closely resembles the retailer's official site. After entering personal and credit card information on the site, the consumer realizes it was a fraudulent site designed to steal information. This type of cyber attack, where a perpetrator impersonates a reputable brand, is known as what?
This type of cyber attack is known as brand impersonation (B), where attackers create fake websites or send emails that closely mimic legitimate businesses to deceive individuals into providing sensitive information. In this scenario, the attacker used a fraudulent email that appeared to be from a well-known online retailer, along with a website that mimicked the retailer's official site, to trick the consumer into revealing personal and credit card information. Brand impersonation exploits the trust that consumers place in established brands to carry out phishing or other types of fraud. This differs from ransomware (A), which involves encrypting a victim's data and demanding payment, DDoS attacks (C), which overwhelm a system with traffic, and insider threats (D), which involve malicious activities by individuals within an organization.
46. In an organization, the IT department sets up an automated attestation process for reviewing and confirming user access rights. However, a subsequent security review finds that several users still have access rights that they should not possess. What is the MOST likely reason for the failure of the automated attestation process?
The most likely reason for the failure of the automated attestation process is that the system is not integrated with all the organization's resources (Option C). For an automated attestation system to be effective, it must have access to and control over all the systems and resources where user access rights are granted. If it is not fully integrated, some access rights may not be reviewed and revoked as needed. While manual review (Option A) and regular training (Option D) are important, they do not directly address the issue of incomplete system integration. Users bypassing the attestation process using VPNs (Option B) is unlikely, as attestation is about confirming access rights rather than controlling real-time access.
47. A large retail company experienced a data breach in which sensitive customer information was leaked. The incident response team was able to contain the breach quickly, but there was a significant delay in notifying affected customers. Considering this incident, what should be the PRIMARY improvement in the company's incident response plan?
The primary improvement needed in the company's incident response plan is establishing a clear protocol for timely communication with affected parties (Option C). This ensures that customers are promptly informed about the breach and can take necessary actions to protect their information. While investing in detection systems (Option A) and focusing on encryption methods (Option D) are important for prevention and protection, they do not address the issue of communication during an incident. A public relations strategy (Option B) is important for managing the company's image but should be part of a broader communication protocol.
48. To enhance an organization's defenses against privilege escalation attacks, which TWO of the following strategies should be prioritized? (SELECT TWO)
To effectively defend against privilege escalation attacks, it's important to focus on strategies that directly address user privileges and system vulnerabilities. Employing the principle of least privilege (Option A) ensures that user accounts and services have only the minimum necessary access rights, reducing the impact of potential privilege escalation. Conducting regular vulnerability assessments and penetration testing (Option C) helps identify and remediate vulnerabilities that could be exploited in privilege escalation attacks. While implementing an IDS (Option B) is important for detecting suspicious activities, it does not directly prevent privilege escalation. Regular security awareness training (Option D) is crucial for overall cybersecurity but is less directly targeted at preventing privilege escalation, which often exploits technical vulnerabilities rather than relying on user actions.
49. An e-commerce company uses a wildcard SSL/TLS certificate for its main domain and all associated subdomains. When expanding its online services to a new subdomain, what is the primary security advantage of the existing wildcard certificate?
For an e-commerce company expanding its online services to a new subdomain, the primary security advantage of using an existing wildcard SSL/TLS certificate is that it extends SSL/TLS encryption to the new subdomain without the need for an additional certificate. A wildcard certificate is designed to secure the main domain and all its subdomains with a single certificate. This means that when the company adds a new subdomain to its online presence, the wildcard certificate automatically provides SSL/TLS encryption for this subdomain as well. This capability simplifies the process of securing new subdomains, ensuring that they are protected with encryption from the outset and maintaining a consistent level of security across the company's entire web domain.
50. A healthcare provider is planning a maintenance window to update its patient record system with enhanced security measures. To ensure the update is successful and minimizes impact on operations, which TWO of the following actions should be prioritized in planning the maintenance window? (SELECT TWO)
In planning a maintenance window for updating a patient record system in a healthcare provider setting, two critical actions to prioritize are scheduling the maintenance during hours of least activity (Option A) and notifying all relevant staff and departments in advance (Option B). Scheduling the maintenance during low-activity hours ensures that the impact on patient care and facility operations is minimized, allowing for the necessary security updates to be implemented without major disruptions. Advanced notification to staff and departments is essential for operational preparedness and coordination, ensuring that everyone is aware of the upcoming maintenance and can plan accordingly. While having a backout plan (Option C) is important for any update, and training staff on new features (Option D) is necessary post-update, these actions are secondary to the immediate needs of scheduling and communicating the maintenance window effectively to minimize operational impact.
51. A multinational corporation is implementing measures to enhance the execution of its security strategy. Which TWO of the following actions should be prioritized to effectively strengthen the corporation's security execution? (SELECT TWO)
To effectively strengthen the execution of its security strategy, the multinational corporation should prioritize regularly testing and updating incident response and disaster recovery plans (Option B) and ensuring ongoing security awareness training for all employees (Option D). Option B is crucial for maintaining readiness in the event of a security incident or disaster. Regular testing and updates ensure that the plans are effective and account for new threats, changes in the organization's structure, and technological advancements. Option D addresses the human element of cybersecurity, equipping employees with the knowledge and skills to identify and respond to security threats, thereby reducing the risk of security breaches. Delaying security updates (Option A) can leave systems vulnerable to known exploits and is not a recommended practice. Implementing strict policies against the use of personal devices (Option C) may improve security but is less impactful compared to regular testing of response plans and ongoing training.
52. A high-end jewelry store implements a pressure-sensitive security system in its display cases to prevent theft. The system activates an alarm if any item is removed from the case without proper authorization. During a busy day, a staff member forgets to deactivate the system before removing a piece of jewelry for a customer. What should the security system do in response to the removal of the jewelry?
In the scenario where a staff member forgets to deactivate a pressure-sensitive security system in a jewelry store display case, the system should respond by sounding an alarm and notifying store management (Option B). This response is appropriate for a security system designed to prevent theft by detecting the unauthorized removal of items. Even though the removal is by a staff member, the system operates on the principle that any removal without deactivation is unauthorized. Temporarily disabling the alarm (Option A) or allowing the removal without triggering the alarm (Option C) would compromise the security of the display case. Locking down the store (Option D) might be an excessive response to a single unauthorized removal, especially if it can be quickly resolved by store management.
53. A university decides to implement application allow lists on its administrative computers to improve cybersecurity. Which TWO of the following outcomes are most likely to be achieved through this implementation? (SELECT TWO)
The implementation of application allow lists on administrative computers at the university is primarily aimed at preventing the execution of unapproved software (Option C), which can include malware and other potentially harmful applications. By restricting software execution to a list of approved applications, the university significantly reduces the risk of security breaches and data leakage (Option B), as unauthorized software often poses a threat to data security. While streamlining the software procurement process (Option A) and automating software updates (Option D) are beneficial practices, they are not direct outcomes of implementing application allow lists. The main goals here are to enhance security and control over the software environment.
54. An energy company is conducting a series of simulation exercises to prepare for various cybersecurity threats, including ransomware attacks, DDoS attacks, and insider threats. The exercises aim to improve the company's resilience and readiness. What key elements should be included in the simulation exercises to ensure comprehensive preparation? (SELECT TWO)
To ensure comprehensive preparation in the simulation exercises for various cybersecurity threats, it is crucial to involve stakeholders from IT, legal, HR, and executive management (B), and to document and review the outcomes to identify areas for improvement (C). Involving a diverse group of stakeholders ensures that all relevant perspectives and expertise are considered, leading to a more holistic understanding of the impacts and responses to cybersecurity threats. Documenting and reviewing the outcomes of the simulations is essential for learning from the exercises and making necessary adjustments to the company's security strategies and incident response plans. Focusing exclusively on technical aspects (A) may overlook important non-technical factors such as communication and legal compliance. Limiting scenarios to the most likely threats (D) may not adequately prepare the company for less common but potentially high-impact cyber threats. Therefore, the correct elements to include in the simulation exercises are B) Involving stakeholders from IT, legal, HR, and executive management, and C) Documenting and reviewing the outcomes to identify areas for improvement.
55. A security analyst at a large corporation notices unusual outbound traffic patterns on the network, including a high volume of data being sent to unfamiliar external IP addresses. The analyst suspects a data exfiltration attempt. In line with the detection phase of incident response, what should be the analyst's NEXT step after identifying this suspicious activity?
In the detection phase of incident response, it is crucial to accurately identify and understand the nature and scope of the incident. This involves gathering additional information about the suspicious activity to confirm whether it is a security incident and to assess its impact. Option B represents this critical step of further investigation to make informed decisions about how to proceed. While disconnecting affected systems (Option A) may be a subsequent action, it should not be done prematurely without sufficient understanding of the situation. Notifying legal departments (Option C) and law enforcement (Option D) are typically later steps once the incident is confirmed and more information is available.
56. A data center providing critical services for multiple businesses is evaluating its security protocols, with a particular focus on power-related risks. What is the most important security measure for the data center to implement to protect against power outages and ensure uninterrupted operation?
For a data center providing critical services, implementing redundant power supply systems, including backup generators and uninterruptible power supplies (UPS) (Option B), is crucial for protecting against power outages and ensuring uninterrupted operation. Redundant power systems provide an alternative power source in the event of a failure or disruption in the primary power supply, maintaining the availability of services and preventing data loss or downtime. Deploying additional servers (Option A), upgrading network bandwidth (Option C), and expanding physical space (Option D) are important for capacity and performance but do not directly address the power-related risks and the need for uninterrupted operation.
57. An e-commerce company experiences frequent traffic surges during peak shopping seasons. To maintain security while ensuring responsiveness to customer demands, what is the most important security consideration for the company's web infrastructure during these periods?
For an e-commerce company experiencing frequent traffic surges, the most important security consideration is enhancing server capacity to handle increased traffic without compromising security (Option B). This involves scaling up resources to ensure that the website remains responsive to customer demands while maintaining robust security measures to protect against potential threats. Temporarily disabling security protocols (Option A) can expose the website to cyber attacks and is not advisable. Shifting operations to a third-party platform (Option C) may not be feasible or desirable and could introduce additional security and control challenges. Focusing solely on marketing strategies (Option D) does not address the critical need to balance responsiveness with security during peak traffic periods.
58. A healthcare provider is calculating the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) for the loss of patient data due to malware infections. The estimated Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) per incident is $250,000, and the Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO) for malware infections is 0.4. Based on this information, what is the ALE, and what should be the focus of the organization's risk mitigation efforts?
The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) is calculated as the product of the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) and the Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO). In this case, the ALE is $250,000 (SLE) x 0.4 (ARO) = $100,000. This represents the expected annual financial loss due to malware infections leading to the loss of patient data. Given an ALE of $100,000, the healthcare provider should focus on enhancing malware detection and prevention measures (Option A). This could include implementing advanced antivirus software, deploying intrusion detection and prevention systems, and regularly updating and patching systems to address known vulnerabilities. While developing a comprehensive incident response plan (Option B), regular data backups (Option C), and employee training (Option D) are important aspects of a holistic cybersecurity strategy, the primary focus in this scenario should be on proactive measures to reduce the likelihood of malware infections, thus lowering the ARO and subsequently the ALE.
59. A financial institution implements file integrity monitoring (FIM) as part of its cybersecurity measures. However, the IT department is overwhelmed with alerts, many of which are false positives related to routine software updates. As the IT security manager, what adjustment should you make to the FIM configuration to reduce false positives while maintaining effective monitoring of critical system files?
In this scenario, the challenge is to manage the high volume of alerts from the file integrity monitoring system, many of which are false positives caused by routine software updates. Option A, disabling FIM during software update periods, could create a window of vulnerability where actual malicious changes might go undetected. Option C, configuring FIM to alert only for file changes outside business hours, might miss malicious activities that occur during business hours. Option D, increasing the alert threshold, could reduce sensitivity to the point where important changes are not detected. The most effective solution is Option B, fine-tuning the FIM settings to exclude directories where routine software updates occur. This approach reduces false positives by not monitoring areas of the system that undergo expected changes, while still maintaining vigilant monitoring of critical system files and areas not typically affected by routine updates.
60. A university is looking to enhance the security of its campus to deter potential criminal activities. Which TWO of the following measures would be most effective as deterrents? (SELECT TWO)
Installing more bright lights in parking lots and walkways (A) and displaying security cameras in prominent locations (C) are the most effective deterrent measures for enhancing campus security. Bright lighting (A) in parking lots and walkways increases visibility, making it more difficult for individuals to engage in criminal activities unnoticed, thereby acting as a deterrent. Additionally, well-lit areas make students and staff feel safer, further enhancing security. Displaying security cameras (C) in prominent locations serves as a visual reminder that activities are being monitored, which can significantly deter potential criminal behavior by increasing the perceived likelihood of detection and capture. Implementing a strict password policy (B) is important for online security but does not directly deter physical criminal activities on campus. Encrypting sensitive research data (D) protects against data breaches but is not a visible deterrent to general criminal activities on campus.
61. An e-commerce company sets a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 15 minutes for its online ordering system. If there is a system outage, what aspect should be prioritized to ensure compliance with the RPO?
To ensure compliance with a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 15 minutes for its online ordering system, the e-commerce company should prioritize implementing real-time or near-real-time data replication (Option C). This approach ensures that data is continuously or frequently replicated, minimizing the amount of data loss in case of a system outage. Real-time or near-real-time replication aligns with the 15-minute RPO by ensuring that the most recent data is available and the loss is within the acceptable timeframe. While maintaining high availability (Option A) and conducting regular drills (Option B) are important for overall system reliability, they do not directly address the data replication necessary to meet the RPO. Outsourcing system management (Option D) may provide benefits but does not inherently guarantee compliance with the specified RPO.
62. A multinational corporation experienced a sophisticated ransomware attack. The malware encrypted critical data and demanded a substantial ransom in cryptocurrency for its release. Subsequent investigation revealed that the attack was highly coordinated, using advanced techniques and targeting specific vulnerabilities. The perpetrators communicated in a professional manner, suggesting a well-organized structure. Which type of threat actor is most likely behind this attack?
The characteristics of this attack — sophisticated, highly coordinated, targeting specific vulnerabilities, and demanding ransom in cryptocurrency — point towards an organized crime group (Option B) specializing in cyber extortion. Such groups often use advanced techniques and operate in a structured manner to maximize financial gain through ransomware attacks. This differs from the behavior of a lone wolf hacker (Option A), who may lack the resources and organization for such a sophisticated operation. It is also inconsistent with the motivations of a nation-state actor (Option C), which would likely focus on espionage rather than financial gain, and a hacktivist group (Option D), which typically pursues political or social objectives.
63. SecureData Corp. is using a critical application that has a known vulnerability. A patch for the vulnerability is not yet available from the vendor. In the meantime, what compensating control can SecureData Corp. implement to reduce the risk exposure until the patch is released?
In situations where a critical application has a known vulnerability that cannot be immediately patched, deploying an intrusion detection system (IDS) is a valuable compensating control. An IDS can monitor the application and network for signs of exploitation attempts related to the known vulnerability. This allows SecureData Corp. to detect and respond to any malicious activity promptly, reducing the risk of a successful exploit. Option A, removing the application, may not be practical due to its critical nature. Option C, informing customers, is important for transparency but does not mitigate the risk. Option D, relying solely on antivirus software, might not be sufficient to detect or prevent exploitation, especially if the vulnerability is unknown to the antivirus.
64. A healthcare organization conducts an internal audit and finds that several employees have access to patient data beyond their job requirements. What is the most appropriate next step to align with effective internal security compliance?
Implementing role-based access control (RBAC) (Option B) is the most appropriate step to ensure that employees only have access to data necessary for their job roles, aligning with effective internal security compliance. Increasing the frequency of internal audits (Option A) is beneficial but does not address the immediate issue of excessive data access. Providing additional training (Option C) is important for awareness but does not directly restrict unnecessary access. Encrypting all patient data (Option D) enhances data security but does not solve the problem of excessive access rights. RBAC directly addresses the issue by aligning access rights with job requirements, thereby reducing the risk of unauthorized access or data breaches.
65. An IT manager at DataCorp is implementing a new role-based access control (RBAC) system. The manager needs to ensure that permission assignments align with security best practices and organizational needs. Which TWO of the following actions should the manager take to achieve this goal? (SELECT TWO)
Regularly reviewing and updating role definitions (Option A) is crucial in an RBAC system to ensure that roles reflect current organizational structures and job functions. This practice helps maintain the alignment of permissions with the changing needs and responsibilities of users. Assigning permissions based on job functions and responsibilities (Option C) is a core principle of RBAC and helps enforce the principle of least privilege, whereby users are granted only the access necessary to perform their duties. Option B is a poor security practice as it exposes the system to unnecessary risks. Implementing time-based access control (Option D) can be a useful additional measure for sensitive resources, but it is not as fundamental as options A and C for the overall effectiveness of an RBAC system.
66. To enhance security against Bluetooth-related threats, a company is revising its mobile device policy. Which TWO of the following actions should be included to improve Bluetooth security for company devices? (SELECT TWO)
Disabling Bluetooth functionality when not in use (A) is an effective measure to reduce the risk of Bluetooth-related threats. When Bluetooth is disabled, it prevents unauthorized devices from discovering and potentially connecting to or exploiting the device, significantly reducing the risk of attacks like Bluejacking and Bluesnarfing. Regularly updating device firmware to patch Bluetooth vulnerabilities (C) is also crucial. Firmware updates often include security patches that address known vulnerabilities in Bluetooth protocols and functionalities, enhancing the overall security of the device. Enforcing the use of strong, unique passwords for device unlocking (B) is important for general device security but does not directly address Bluetooth-specific threats. Restricting the use of Bluetooth devices to secure areas (D) can help control the environment in which Bluetooth is used, but it is less effective than disabling Bluetooth when not needed and ensuring firmware is up to date.
67. A financial firm is in the process of acquiring new hardware to upgrade its data centers. The procurement team is evaluating several vendors offering servers with varying levels of security features. One of the key requirements is to ensure data confidentiality and integrity. Which of the following vendor offerings should the procurement team prioritize to best meet the firm's security needs?
The scenario emphasizes the importance of data confidentiality and integrity in a financial firm's data center upgrade. Option B, servers with built-in hardware-based encryption capabilities, directly addresses these needs by providing a means to protect data at rest and in transit. Hardware-based encryption is a crucial security feature that ensures only authorized individuals can access the data, thereby maintaining its confidentiality and integrity. Option A, focusing solely on processing power and storage capacity, does not directly address the security concerns. Option C, prioritizing cost-effectiveness, may compromise on necessary security features. Option D, considering warranty period, is important for long-term maintenance but does not impact the immediate security of data.
68. An IT company implements the principle of least privilege by assigning users only the permissions necessary for their roles. Despite this policy, a recent security incident involved a junior developer who was able to modify critical system files, leading to a significant system outage. What is the MOST likely reason for this breach of the least privilege principle?
The most likely reason for the security incident, where a junior developer was able to modify critical system files, is that the developer's account was mistakenly granted administrative privileges (Option A). This would provide access beyond what is necessary for the developer's role, violating the principle of least privilege. Options B, C, and D might contribute to security issues but do not directly address the likely cause of this specific incident, which is the incorrect assignment of privileges.
69. A major online retailer experienced a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack during a significant sales event, leading to the temporary shutdown of its website. The attack did not result in any data breach or ransom demands but caused substantial financial loss due to interrupted sales. What type of threat actor is most likely responsible for this incident?
The DDoS attack on the online retailer during a significant sales event, which led to substantial financial loss but did not involve data breach or ransom demands, is indicative of a threat actor aiming to cause disruption and chaos (Option C). This type of attack is often motivated by the desire to disrupt operations and create chaos for its own sake, rather than for financial extortion (Option A), corporate sabotage (Option B), or as part of state-sponsored activities (Option D). The lack of a clear financial or strategic motive suggests the goal was to cause disruption during a critical business period.
70. A retail company experiences an unexpected data breach involving customer payment information. The IT manager decides to conduct an ad hoc risk assessment to understand the breach's impact and prevent future incidents. What should the IT manager prioritize in this assessment? (SELECT TWO)
In responding to a data breach, particularly one involving customer payment information, the focus of an ad hoc risk assessment should be on understanding the immediate security vulnerabilities and taking steps to prevent similar incidents. Reviewing the company's data encryption policies (Option A) is crucial, as encryption is a key defense against data breaches. This involves assessing whether existing policies are adequate and identifying any areas for improvement. Identifying vulnerabilities in the point-of-sale (POS) system (Option D) is particularly relevant in a retail context, as these systems are often targeted in data breaches. Analyzing the effectiveness of the incident response plan (Option B) is important but more related to how the breach was handled rather than preventing future incidents. Assessing the financial impact (Option C) is also important but secondary to addressing the immediate security concerns. The IT manager should prioritize actions that directly contribute to understanding and mitigating the security risks exposed by the breach.
71. During a physical security assessment of a data center, it is discovered that there are no surveillance cameras in critical areas such as server rooms and entry/exit points. What should be the data center's immediate action to enhance physical security and protect sensitive equipment?
The physical security assessment specifically identified the absence of surveillance cameras in critical areas of the data center. To address this vulnerability, the immediate and most appropriate action is to install surveillance cameras in these areas (Option B). This enhances security by allowing monitoring of critical areas and deterring unauthorized access. Implementing biometric access controls (Option A) is an effective security measure but does not address the specific issue of surveillance. Regular security awareness training for staff (Option C) is important for overall security culture but is not a direct response to the lack of surveillance cameras. Upgrading firewall and network security systems (Option D) improves cybersecurity but does not address the physical security concerns identified in the assessment.
72. A smart home technology company provides a range of IoT devices, including smart thermostats, security cameras, and lighting systems. These devices are connected to the internet and can be controlled remotely by homeowners. Given the recent rise in IoT-targeted cyberattacks, what should be the company's FIRST step in hardening these smart home devices against potential security breaches?
The first and most crucial step for hardening IoT devices against security breaches is ensuring they are using strong, unique default passwords (B). This measure directly addresses a common vulnerability in IoT devices — the use of weak or default passwords that can be easily exploited by attackers. Encouraging users to change these passwords upon setup further enhances security. While implementing a firewall (A), releasing firmware updates (C), and providing security best practices (D) are important, the initial focus should be on securing device access with robust passwords.
73. To enhance security, a company plans to implement facial recognition technology ("something you are") for employee authentication. Which TWO of the following best practices should the company adopt to ensure the security and effectiveness of the facial recognition implementation? (SELECT TWO)
Ensuring that the facial recognition system is trained on a diverse dataset (Option A) is crucial to improve its accuracy and reduce the rate of false positives and negatives. A diverse dataset helps the system to recognize a wide range of facial features and expressions across different demographics. Implementing a secondary authentication factor in addition to facial recognition (Option B) enhances security by adding another layer of verification, making it more difficult for unauthorized individuals to gain access. While regularly updating the company's firewall (Option C) is important for overall network security, it does not directly relate to the effectiveness of the facial recognition system. Training employees on proper positioning (Option D) can help with the system's usability but is less critical than ensuring the system's accuracy and implementing multi-factor authentication.
74. You are a network administrator tasked with configuring security protocols on a network. Match each protocol with the corresponding layer of the OSI model.
75. During a routine security scan, the IT team at SecureNet Corp. receives an alert indicating a potential malware infection on a critical server. However, upon further investigation, they determine that the alert was a false positive, triggered by a legitimate software update. What should SecureNet Corp. do next to improve their vulnerability management process and reduce the likelihood of future false positives?
False positives, where a security tool incorrectly identifies benign activity as malicious, can be disruptive and lead to wasted resources. In this scenario, the correct course of action is to update the configuration of the security scanning tool to better differentiate between legitimate software updates and actual malware. This could involve adjusting the tool's rules, whitelisting known safe applications, or fine-tuning its sensitivity settings. Such adjustments help in reducing the likelihood of future false positives, allowing the IT team to focus on genuine threats. Option A, disabling the security scanning tool, is not advisable as it would leave the network vulnerable to actual threats. Option C, ignoring future alerts, could result in missing real security incidents. Option D, manually checking all servers, is resource-intensive and not sustainable as a long-term solution.
76. A large manufacturing company conducts a supply chain analysis and discovers that one of its key suppliers has recently been the target of a cyberattack, leading to concerns about the security of its own network. What should be the company's first action to mitigate any potential risk stemming from this supplier's security breach?
Upon learning that a key supplier has been the target of a cyberattack, the manufacturing company's first action should be to conduct a thorough review of its own network security (Option B). This review is essential to identify any vulnerabilities that may have been exploited through the supply chain and to ensure that the company's network has not been compromised. It also helps in assessing the effectiveness of existing security controls and in determining if any immediate actions are needed to strengthen security. Finding an alternative supplier (Option A) or temporarily halting operations with the supplier (Option D) may be considered as longer-term strategies, but they do not address the immediate need to secure the company's own network. Requesting a detailed security report from the supplier (Option C) is a useful step to understand the nature of the breach and any potential implications, but it should not be the first action before ensuring the company's network is secure.
77. In a large data center, the network team is tasked with hardening the security of core switches that handle high volumes of sensitive data traffic. One of the primary concerns is protecting the switches from Denial of Service (DoS) attacks. Which of the following hardening techniques would be MOST effective in protecting these core switches from DoS attacks?
Implementing rate limiting on the switch ports (C) is the most effective technique for protecting core switches from Denial of Service (DoS) attacks. Rate limiting controls the amount of traffic that can pass through a port, preventing the switch from being overwhelmed by excessive traffic typical in DoS attacks. Enabling QoS (A) is beneficial for managing network traffic but does not specifically protect against DoS attacks. Configuring SNMPv3 (B) enhances the security of network management but does not directly address DoS attack prevention. Regularly updating firmware (D) is crucial for overall security but is a general best practice rather than a specific measure against DoS attacks.
78. During a routine security audit, an IT security analyst discovers that the company's web application is vulnerable to brute force attacks due to weak password policies. What should be the analyst's NEXT step to prevent similar incidents?
After identifying a vulnerability to brute force attacks, the next step to prevent similar incidents is to strengthen the authentication process. Implementing two-factor authentication (2FA) for all user accounts (Option B) adds an additional layer of security beyond just the password. 2FA makes it significantly more difficult for attackers to gain unauthorized access even if they manage to guess or crack the password. Disabling user accounts (Option A) can help prevent unauthorized access but may not be as effective as 2FA. Encrypting sensitive data (Option C) is important for data protection but does not address the issue of account access through brute force attacks. Regular penetration testing (Option D) is valuable for identifying vulnerabilities but does not provide immediate protection against brute force attacks like 2FA does.
79. A large manufacturing company is revising its security policies to comply with new industry regulations. The Policy Administrator is responsible for updating the policies and ensuring they align with the regulatory requirements. During the revision process, an employee suggests a policy change that conflicts with the new regulations. What is the most appropriate action for the Policy Administrator to take in this situation?
The role of a Policy Administrator includes ensuring that security policies comply with relevant laws, regulations, and standards. In this scenario, when an employee suggests a policy change that conflicts with new industry regulations, the Policy Administrator should reject the suggestion and provide an explanation of the regulatory requirements. This action ensures that the company's security policies remain compliant with the regulations, which is a key responsibility of the Policy Administrator. Implementing the suggested change (Option A), forwarding it for technical review (Option C), or adopting it in non-regulated areas (Option D) are not appropriate actions, as they may lead to non-compliance with the regulations.
80. A luxury hotel is planning to install access control vestibules at entrances to its VIP guest floors for enhanced security. The hotel wants the vestibules to provide effective security without compromising guest convenience. Which TWO of the following features should be included in the access control vestibules to meet these requirements? (SELECT TWO)
To balance effective security with guest convenience in a luxury hotel setting, incorporating facial recognition technology (Option A) and an intercom system (Option D) in the access control vestibules is ideal. Facial recognition technology provides a quick and secure method for authenticating VIP guests, allowing for a seamless and efficient entry experience. An intercom system enables guests to easily communicate with hotel staff if they encounter any issues or require assistance, enhancing the overall guest experience while maintaining security. A turnstile mechanism (Option B) can control entry and exit but may be perceived as less convenient or welcoming in a luxury hotel environment. A full-body X-ray scanner (Option C) provides thorough security checks but may be excessive and intrusive for hotel guests, potentially impacting their comfort and privacy.
81. During a routine OSINT gathering exercise, a cybersecurity team at TechGuard Inc. discovers a leaked database containing login credentials that match their company's email domain. What is the most effective initial action for the team to mitigate the potential risk posed by this exposure?
In the event of discovering a leaked database containing company login credentials through open-source intelligence (OSINT), the primary concern is to mitigate the risk of unauthorized access. The most effective initial action is to notify all employees whose credentials are potentially compromised to change their passwords immediately. This step helps prevent attackers from using the exposed credentials to gain access to the company's systems or data. It's a direct and proactive measure to safeguard against potential exploitation of the leaked information. Option B, conducting an internal investigation, is important but secondary to the immediate need to secure accounts. Option C, monitoring the dark web, can provide additional insights but does not address the immediate risk. Option D, contacting the authorities, is a relevant step in the case of a confirmed data breach, but the first priority should be to secure the potentially compromised accounts.
82. Match firewall rules to the appropriate order in the firewall rule set to secure a given network. Rules include allowing/denying specific ports, IP addresses, and protocols.
Port 443 (HTTPS) should be allowed for secure web traffic. Port 53 (DNS) is necessary for domain name resolution. ICMP is often denied to prevent ping sweeps and other network reconnaissance techniques. Blocking a known malicious IP address should be lower in the rule set to ensure it does not override general allowances.
83. A healthcare provider manages large volumes of sensitive patient health records and needs to ensure the data is securely protected in various states. Which TWO of the following encryption strategies should the provider implement to comprehensively secure patient health records? (SELECT TWO)
Encrypting data at rest using Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is essential for protecting sensitive patient health records stored in the healthcare provider's systems. AES provides a robust and widely recognized encryption standard that ensures the confidentiality and security of the data while it is stored. Implementing Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) for email communication is crucial for securing email exchanges that contain patient health information. S/MIME encrypts the content of the emails, ensuring that sensitive information is protected during transit. While a web application firewall (C) is important for protecting web applications, it does not specifically encrypt data. A virtual private network (VPN) (D) secures the communication channel for remote access but is not specifically focused on encrypting the health records themselves. The combination of AES for data at rest and S/MIME for email communication provides comprehensive encryption coverage for the sensitive patient health records in various states.
84. A technology research company is updating its policy for the destruction of various types of data storage devices, including solid-state drives (SSDs), hard disk drives (HDDs), and optical media (CDs/DVDs). The company handles highly confidential data and requires the most secure destruction methods. Which TWO of the following methods should be included in the policy for the secure destruction of these storage devices? (SELECT TWO)
For a technology research company handling highly confidential data, selecting the most secure destruction methods for different types of data storage devices is crucial. Option B, industrial shredding for HDDs and optical media, is a highly effective method. Shredding physically destroys the media, making data recovery impossible. This method is particularly suitable for HDDs and optical media like CDs and DVDs. Option C, incineration for SSDs and optical media, is another secure method. Incineration completely burns the media, destroying any stored data. This method is especially effective for SSDs, as their construction can make other forms of physical destruction less reliable. Option A, degaussing, is effective for HDDs but not for SSDs, which do not store data magnetically. Option D, overwriting data multiple times, is a form of data sanitization but may not be sufficient for the complete destruction of highly confidential data, especially for SSDs.
85. InfoGuard Corp. conducts a vulnerability analysis and identifies several vulnerabilities with varying exposure factors. The vulnerabilities include an unpatched software vulnerability (EF 60%), weak passwords used by employees (EF 40%), and a misconfigured firewall (EF 70%). To effectively manage these vulnerabilities based on their exposure factors, which TWO of the following actions should InfoGuard Corp. prioritize? (SELECT TWO)
Effectively managing vulnerabilities based on their exposure factors involves prioritizing actions that address vulnerabilities with higher potential impacts. Option B, prioritizing patching the unpatched software vulnerability with an EF of 60%, is important as software vulnerabilities can be exploited to gain unauthorized access or cause significant damage. Patching this vulnerability reduces the risk associated with a high exposure factor. Option A, focusing on strengthening employee password policies, addresses the vulnerability associated with weak passwords (EF 40%). Improving password policies and enforcing strong password requirements is a key step in reducing the risk of unauthorized access. Option C, replacing the misconfigured firewall, might be considered, but reconfiguring the existing firewall would be a more immediate and cost-effective action. Option D, implementing additional security training regarding firewall configuration, is beneficial for long-term security posture but does not directly address the immediate need to remediate the identified vulnerabilities.
86. A large enterprise is reviewing its security policies for critical systems, including firewalls, IDSs, and access control systems. The IT security team needs to decide which systems should be configured to fail-open and which should fail-closed, based on the potential impact on security and operations. Considering the balance between maintaining security and ensuring business continuity, which TWO of the following systems should be configured to fail-closed? (SELECT TWO)
When configuring systems to fail-closed, the priority is to maintain security even at the risk of potential service disruption. The firewall protecting the internal network (Option A) should be configured to fail-closed to ensure that in the event of a failure, the network remains protected from external threats, despite the possibility of disrupting traffic flow. Similarly, the access control system for the data center (Option C) should also fail-closed to prevent unauthorized access during system failures, prioritizing security over convenience. In contrast, an IDS in the DMZ (Option B) and a load balancer (Option D) might be candidates for a fail-open configuration to maintain operational continuity, as their failure does not directly result in a critical security breach.
87. An IT manager is planning to deploy antivirus software across a network with diverse operating systems and hardware configurations. What is the MOST important consideration when selecting an antivirus solution for this environment, and what is a key benefit of this consideration?
The most important consideration in this scenario is to select an antivirus solution that is compatible with the diverse range of operating systems and hardware configurations present in the network. This ensures that the antivirus software can be seamlessly integrated and function effectively across all systems, providing consistent protection throughout the network. While detection rate (Option A), cost (Option C), and scanning speed (Option D) are important factors, compatibility is crucial for ensuring that the antivirus software works properly on every system in the diverse environment.
88. A financial services company is implementing a new software update in its transaction processing system. The update includes critical security patches and new compliance features. Before deployment, the change management committee reviews the update. During the review, one member insists on performing an additional risk analysis despite the update having passed all preliminary tests. How should the committee respond to ensure the integrity and security of the system?
In the context of change management, particularly for critical systems like financial transaction processing, the emphasis is on ensuring security and compliance while minimizing risks. Even though the update has passed preliminary tests, the suggestion to perform additional risk analysis aligns with best practices in change management. This step is crucial to identify and mitigate any potential security vulnerabilities that might have been overlooked. It demonstrates a proactive approach to security, prioritizing thorough evaluation over expedited deployment. The approval process in change management must be rigorous, especially when dealing with critical updates that impact security and compliance.
89. When considering the implementation of certificate authorities (CAs) in a security infrastructure, which of the following are key roles played by CAs? (SELECT TWO)
Certificate authorities (CAs) serve crucial roles in security infrastructures, particularly in issuing digital certificates and establishing secure communication channels. Firstly, one of the primary roles of a CA is to issue digital certificates. These certificates are used to verify the identity of entities, such as individuals, organizations, or websites. The CA validates the identity of the certificate applicant and then issues a certificate that other parties can rely on to confirm the applicant's identity. This process is essential for ensuring trust and authenticity in digital interactions. Secondly, CAs provide a means to establish secure communication channels. Digital certificates issued by CAs are used in protocols such as SSL/TLS to authenticate the parties involved in a communication and to facilitate the encryption of data transmitted between them. This role is vital for securing online transactions, email communications, and other forms of digital data exchange, protecting against eavesdropping and ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the transmitted information.
90. A financial services company has implemented automation in its security operations, integrating various security solutions through APIs. This approach includes automated threat detection, incident response, and compliance reporting. Which of the following are DIRECT benefits of using integrations and APIs in this manner? (SELECT TWO)
The direct benefits of using integrations and APIs to automate security operations include an enhanced ability to correlate data across different security tools (option B) and streamlined processes for detecting and responding to security incidents (option D). Integrations and APIs allow for efficient data sharing and analysis between various security solutions, leading to more effective threat detection and incident response. This interconnectedness enables a comprehensive view of security events and faster decision-making. Options A and C are incorrect, as the need for a dedicated cybersecurity team remains crucial for overseeing and managing the automated systems, and regular software updates are still important for maintaining security and functionality.
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