Free Practice Exam 1

The correct answer is A). The software requires Windows 11 Pro for specific features such as advanced networking and encryption, which are not available in the Home edition. Upgrading the OS to Windows 11 Pro (A) is the only way to meet these requirements. Enabling Hyper-V and other features (B) is not possible on Windows 11 Home, as these features are locked. Running in Compatibility Mode (C) is not relevant because it does not provide the missing Pro features. Editing the installer configuration (D) might bypass the installation block, but the software would still lack access to required OS functionalities, resulting in limited or unstable performance. Therefore, upgrading to Windows 11 Pro (A) is the correct solution.

Option A is correct because UPnP, while convenient, is known to have security vulnerabilities that can allow malicious applications to open ports without authorization. Disabling UPnP and manually configuring port forwarding for the camera system ensures that only the necessary ports are exposed, reducing the attack surface and maintaining control over which services are accessible externally. Option B is incorrect because enabling the firewall does not fully mitigate the risks posed by UPnP, as it cannot prevent UPnP from opening ports. Option C is incorrect because changing the camera’s default admin password is good practice but does not address the security issues associated with UPnP. Option D is incorrect because setting up a VPN would provide secure remote access but would complicate the setup and may not be practical for a simple IP camera system. Therefore, disabling UPnP and using manual port forwarding (A) is the best approach for balancing security and functionality.

Correct Answer: D. The correct approach is to ensure that SSDs are set to "Trim" while HDDs are set to "Defragment" (D). The Trim function optimizes SSDs by clearing unused data blocks, improving the performance and lifespan of the drive, whereas HDDs benefit from defragmentation, which consolidates fragmented files. Enabling defragmentation for both types of drives (A) can be harmful to SSDs, as defragmentation is unnecessary and can reduce their lifespan. Manually excluding SSDs from optimization (B) ignores the benefits of the Trim function. Disabling defragmentation entirely (C) would negatively impact HDD performance by allowing file fragmentation to accumulate over time.

Correct Answer: B. The root certificate should be installed in the Trusted Root Certification Authorities store (B). This ensures that all users on the system will trust any certificates issued by this CA, allowing access to secure websites and services without further warnings. The Personal Certificates Store (A) is for user-specific certificates, such as email encryption or digital signatures, and does not affect system-wide trust. The Intermediate Certification Authorities store (C) is for intermediate CA certificates, which bridge the gap between root CAs and end-entity certificates. The Enterprise Trust store (D) is used for certificates that establish trust within an enterprise network, not for root CA certificates that need to be trusted across the system.

Correct Answer: B. Immediately disconnecting the computer from the network and powering it down (B) is the most critical first step in responding to a ransomware attack to limit further damage. By isolating the infected machine, the technician prevents the ransomware from spreading to other devices on the network, potentially saving other systems from encryption. Powering down the system can also help preserve the current state of the files, making it easier for forensic analysis to identify the ransomware variant. Option (A), paying the ransom, is never recommended because it does not guarantee that the attackers will restore access, and it encourages further criminal activity. Option (C), using a known decryption tool, may work only if the ransomware variant is already known and has a decryption tool available. However, trying to use a decryption tool without first isolating the system can lead to further damage. Option (D), restoring the system from a backup image, is the right step for recovering data but should be done only after the infected machine is completely isolated and analyzed to prevent re-infection. Thus, the first action should be to immediately disconnect the computer and power it down.

Correct Answer: A. The correct solution is to verify that the Microsoft 365 services are configured to use Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) with Seamless SSO enabled (A). Azure AD Seamless SSO allows users to authenticate to Microsoft 365 and other Azure AD-based applications automatically using their Windows domain credentials without needing to re-enter them. This ensures that SSO is functioning as expected. Instructing employees to save their credentials in the Windows Credential Manager (B) would store the credentials but does not implement true SSO and could present security risks if the Credential Manager is accessed by unauthorized users. Creating a local group policy to disable password caching (C) and using Kerberos ticketing for Microsoft 365 would not resolve the issue, as SSO with Microsoft 365 requires Azure AD integration rather than local policy settings. Ensuring that the workstations are joined to the domain (D) but not Azure AD would prevent the integration needed for SSO with cloud-based services, making it counterproductive. Therefore, option (A) is the correct configuration to enable seamless SSO for both local and cloud-based authentication.

Correct Answer: C. The gpresult /s switch allows the administrator to run gpresult on a remote machine, in this case, "Workstation-07." Option C is correct because it generates a detailed HTML report for easy review. This command will help the administrator analyze which policies are being applied and if there are any conflicts or blocks on the remote machine. Option A only retrieves results for a specific user but does not provide enough detail or apply to the remote machine. Option B generates a local report but does not target the remote computer "Workstation-07." Option D generates a verbose report but does not output it to an HTML file, making it less user-friendly for reviewing large amounts of data. Therefore, Option C is the most effective choice for diagnosing the issue on a remote machine.

Correct Answer: A. When a specific application stops launching after an iOS update, the first step should be to check for compatibility issues (A) because a new OS version can introduce changes that may cause older versions of an app to become incompatible. If the app is confirmed to be incompatible, updating the app or waiting for a developer patch is necessary. Option (B) "Restore the iPhone to a previous backup" is not ideal as it could lead to data loss and should only be attempted if compatibility issues cannot be resolved. Option (C) "Review security settings" would only be relevant if there were indications that the app had been restricted, which would typically generate alerts or error messages. Option (D) "Check for app updates" is a useful step but is less targeted than verifying compatibility, as an update might not exist or the issue could persist even with the latest version. Hence, option (A) is the most effective choice.

Correct Answer: A. The most likely reason is that the GPOs were not linked to the new “Finance” OU (A). Group Policy Objects are applied based on their linkages to specific OUs, sites, or domains. If the IT manager created a new OU and did not link the required GPOs to it, the policies will not be applied to the Finance users, resulting in missing access to shared resources. Option B incorrectly suggests modifying permissions, which would not affect GPO application if the GPOs are not linked. Option C mentions blocked inheritance, which would only apply if the GPOs were linked to a parent OU. Option D focuses on security filtering, which would not be an issue if the GPOs were not linked at all. Therefore, linking the GPOs to the new “Finance” OU (A) is the correct solution.

Correct Answer: A. The best immediate action is to revoke the soft token associated with the manager’s account and enable remote wipe on the lost device (A). This prevents any stored authentication factors from being used by an unauthorized party. Implementing mobile device management (MDM) for all company devices in the future would ensure that similar incidents can be handled promptly by enforcing remote wipe policies. Option B incorrectly focuses on disabling the device’s internet, which does not remove the soft token or prevent local access. Option C suggests replacing the device, but simply restoring the token does not address the risk posed by the lost device. Option D disrupts access entirely without addressing the core issue of the compromised soft token. Therefore, A provides the most comprehensive solution for both immediate and long-term security.

Option C is correct because reverting the configuration to its pre-upgrade state is the primary goal of a rollback plan, ensuring that the network returns to a stable and known-good state. Rollback plans are designed to undo recent changes if issues arise, making option C the most appropriate action to restore functionality. Option A is incorrect because clearing router caches would only offer a temporary fix and does not address the underlying configuration changes. Option B is also incorrect because introducing emergency rules could further complicate the network configuration, potentially leading to more instability. Option D is not appropriate in this scenario because ISP involvement is unnecessary and does not address internal routing issues. Therefore, reverting to the last known stable configuration (C) is the correct course of action in line with change-management best practices.

Correct Answer: B. The correct answer is ext4 (B) because it offers several optimizations for handling both small and large files efficiently. It provides support for defragmentation, which improves performance over time, and can handle a large number of inodes, making it ideal for systems storing millions of files. ext3 (A) is an older filesystem with fewer performance optimizations and lacks native defragmentation support. XFS (C) is known for handling large files but is less efficient for small, random file access, which is a requirement in this scenario. exFAT (D) is designed for external drives and lacks the advanced features needed for high-performance server environments. Therefore, ext4 (B) is the most suitable choice for this cloud storage provider due to its balance of performance, defragmentation support, and file handling capabilities.

Correct Answer: B. Conducting a simulated phishing campaign and reviewing the results with employees (B) is the most effective training method for reinforcing learning because it provides a hands-on experience and allows employees to practice identifying phishing attempts in a controlled environment. This approach simulates real-world scenarios, enabling employees to apply the knowledge they gained during training. Reviewing the results afterward helps identify which users are susceptible and need additional guidance. Option (A), distributing printed guidelines, is a passive method and may not be as impactful as an interactive exercise. It can be easily overlooked and doesn’t provide practical experience. Option (C), sending a warning email, increases awareness but lacks the practical engagement needed to build long-term recognition skills. Option (D), using a training video and written assessment, may improve theoretical understanding but does not allow employees to test their skills in a realistic context. Therefore, simulated phishing campaigns are the best way to reinforce learning and strengthen employees’ ability to identify phishing attempts effectively.

The correct answer is A. Using the existing Windows 10 drivers in compatibility mode is the best interim solution, allowing the company to meet its security policy while continuing to use the custom hardware. This approach ensures that the hardware remains functional after the upgrade, even though official Windows 11 drivers are not yet available. Delaying the upgrade (B) may not be feasible due to the security policy, and replacing the hardware (C) would likely be costly and unnecessary if the current hardware works with compatibility mode. Installing generic drivers (D) may result in limited functionality or performance issues, especially with specialized hardware. Therefore, using the Windows 10 drivers in compatibility mode (A) is the most appropriate solution until updated drivers are released.

Option (A) is correct because it provides a concise yet detailed summary of the troubleshooting steps taken (replacing the power adapter and battery), specifies the root cause (faulty power port), and indicates the next required action (finance approval). This helps ensure that all parties are aware of what has been done and what the current status is. Option (B) is incorrect because it does not specify the exact issue identified (faulty power port) and might cause confusion if finance needs more context before approving the repair. Option (C) is incorrect because stating “tested different components” is vague and omits specific actions taken, which could lead to misunderstandings. Option (D) is incorrect because it lacks clarity on the troubleshooting performed and might result in unnecessary follow-up questions from the finance department.

The correct answer is (D) because updating the trusted sources list to include the shared network drives will prevent the alerts while still ensuring security controls are enforced. This action acknowledges the legitimate nature of the network traffic without weakening overall security. Option (A) is not recommended, as rolling back security software could introduce vulnerabilities. Excluding shared drives entirely (B) is a risky option that could leave the organization vulnerable if malware accesses the drives. Disabling the software (C) would remove critical protection and should only be considered as a last resort.

Correct Answer: B. The correct command is find /home/user/ -mtime -7 (B). The -mtime option in the find command is used to search for files based on their last modification time. The -7 option looks for files that were modified within the last 7 days. Option A, find /home/user/ -mtime +7, would search for files that were modified more than 7 days ago, which is not the requirement. Option C, find /home/user/ -atime -7, searches based on the last access time, which does not meet the requirement to find files based on their modification time. Option D, find /home/user/ -ctime +7, searches for files based on the last change in file status, which includes permission changes, not just content modifications. Therefore, option B is the correct command to find files modified in the last 7 days.

The correct answer is C. Adding the junior designers to the Standard Users group ensures they have the necessary permissions to perform everyday tasks such as saving files and adjusting non-critical settings, without the elevated privileges that come with administrator rights. Configuring software restrictions further prevents them from installing unauthorized applications, providing a secure yet functional environment. (A) Option (A) assigns users to the Power Users group, which grants excessive privileges, including the ability to install software and change system settings—this poses a security risk. (B) Option (B) gives local administrator rights, which allows full control over the workstation, making it easy to modify critical configurations or install potentially harmful applications. (D) Option (D) involves creating a custom group based on the Administrators group, which would again provide excessive permissions, making it difficult to control security effectively. Thus, using the Standard Users group with software restrictions is the most appropriate configuration for balancing security and functionality.

The correct answer is A. To ensure all future deployments include the necessary drivers, the technician should rebuild the image to incorporate the correct drivers. This ensures that each laptop receives a fully functional image without requiring post-deployment fixes. Installing drivers manually (B) on each laptop is inefficient and prone to errors, especially when deploying to a large number of devices. Switching to network-based deployment (C) would not solve the issue of missing drivers, as the problem lies with the image itself, not the deployment method. While creating a post-deployment script (D) could automate the process of installing drivers, it adds unnecessary complexity and is less reliable than building the drivers directly into the image. Therefore, rebuilding the image with the correct drivers (A) is the most appropriate solution.

The correct answer is (B) Impersonation. Impersonation is a social engineering tactic where the attacker pretends to be a trusted individual, such as an IT technician, to deceive the target into revealing sensitive information or granting access. In this scenario, the attacker pretended to be an IT support technician to trick the employee into providing their login credentials. This direct interaction and pretense of being a legitimate authority figure are characteristic of impersonation. Option (A) Phishing usually involves deceptive emails or messages to gather information, but this scenario occurred via a phone call. Option (C) Tailgating involves physically following someone into a restricted area, which is not relevant here since the interaction was entirely verbal. Option (D) Pretexting involves creating a fabricated scenario to gather information, which could be argued here, but it lacks the direct impersonation of a specific role that makes impersonation the most fitting description. Therefore, the best classification is (B) Impersonation.

The correct answer is (B) Open the "Mail" utility, click "Email Accounts," select the employee's email account, and choose "Repair" to modify the server settings. This method allows the technician to modify existing account settings, including the outgoing mail server, without the need to start a new configuration. By selecting "Repair," the technician can enter the correct SMTP server information, ensuring that emails are sent properly. Option (A) is incorrect because "Data Files" is used for managing local email storage, not for modifying server settings. Option (C) is incorrect because removing the account and starting from scratch is unnecessary and would require re-entering all account details, which is inefficient for resolving a simple configuration issue. Option (D) is also incorrect because creating a new profile would only be necessary if the technician needed to manage multiple profiles, which is not required in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D. SMB file sharing (D) is the best choice because SMB (Server Message Block) is a cross-platform protocol that enables file sharing between macOS, Windows, and Linux devices. By enabling SMB on macOS, the marketing team can easily share files and ensure compatibility with other operating systems. Handoff (A) is a feature designed for continuity between Apple devices, which allows users to start tasks on one device and continue on another, but it is not intended for cross-platform file sharing. iCloud Drive (B) is a cloud storage solution integrated with macOS, but it is primarily designed for Apple devices and lacks the same level of cross-platform compatibility. AirDrop (C) is a quick sharing feature between macOS and iOS devices, but it doesn’t facilitate file sharing with Windows or Linux systems. Therefore, SMB file sharing (D) is the most appropriate solution for the team’s need to collaborate across different operating systems.

Correct Answer: C. The most likely cause is that the laptop’s wireless adapter is set to operate only on the 2.4 GHz band while the router supports dual-band (C). In modern dual-band routers, the 5 GHz band typically provides faster speeds and better stability over short distances, while 2.4 GHz is more susceptible to interference. If the laptop is only using the 2.4 GHz band, it might experience connectivity issues due to congestion or interference, especially when moving around the house. Since other devices are not affected, it rules out broader network problems like outdated firmware (B) or MAC filtering (D). Roaming between access points (A) is irrelevant here since the user’s home has only one router, not multiple access points. Adjusting the laptop’s adapter settings to use both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands can improve connectivity.

The correct answer is B. The "PXE-E51: No DHCP or proxyDHCP offers were received" error typically occurs when the workstation's network interface card (NIC) is not correctly set to boot from the network, meaning it is not requesting an IP address from the DHCP server. The technician should check the BIOS settings to ensure that PXE boot is enabled for the NIC. Option A is unlikely because the NIC is detected, and the error is specific to DHCP, not a hardware failure. Option C is incorrect because manually configuring a static IP is not a viable solution for PXE boot, which relies on DHCP to assign an IP address dynamically. Option D is unnecessary, as there is no indication that the DHCP server is malfunctioning, especially since other workstations are booting successfully. Therefore, verifying the NIC’s PXE boot settings in the BIOS (B) is the most appropriate action to resolve this issue.

The correct answer is (A) because contacting the local waste disposal service and arranging for a hazardous waste pickup ensures that the toner cartridges are handled and disposed of according to MSDS guidelines, minimizing the risk of environmental contamination. Proper waste disposal services are equipped to manage hazardous materials and comply with safety regulations. Option (B) is incorrect because storing the cartridges in an unlocked closet poses a safety risk and disposing of them in general trash violates local environmental laws. Option (C) is incorrect because removing residual toner from cartridges could expose the handler to hazardous substances, making this approach unsafe. Option (D) is incorrect because shipping the cartridges to a third-party without adhering to MSDS guidelines could result in improper handling, non-compliance with hazardous waste transportation regulations, and increased risk of spillage during transit.

Correct Answer: A. The correct recommendation is to replace the clear plastic bags with anti-static bags (A) because standard plastic bags can generate and hold static charges, which could damage the SSDs during handling and transport. Anti-static bags are specifically designed to prevent static buildup and safely dissipate any charges that could harm sensitive components. Foam padding inside a plastic bag (B) provides physical protection but does not address ESD, which is the primary concern. Using a grounded metal container (C) is impractical for shipping individual SSDs and could cause other issues, such as shorting if the SSD contacts the metal. Wrapping SSDs in aluminum foil (D) is a bad practice because foil can easily conduct electricity and short sensitive pins on the SSD. Thus, using proper anti-static bags ensures safe handling and transport of SSDs, making (A) the best option.

Correct Answer: C. The most effective and secure solution is to create an inbound rule in the Windows Defender Firewall that allows traffic on port 8080 for the local network only (C). This ensures that the web application can be accessed by developers within the local network while maintaining the security of the firewall by restricting external access. Disabling the firewall (A) would expose the developers' systems to potential security risks, which is not recommended. Adding an outbound rule (B) is unnecessary because the issue relates to inbound traffic being blocked. Turning off network discovery and file sharing (D) would reduce the system’s exposure but would not solve the problem of the firewall blocking the web application.

Correct Answer: A. The most likely cause is that the desktop management agent is outdated (A), preventing the new policy from being applied correctly. Desktop management software relies on the agent to communicate and enforce policies, and if the agent version is not compatible with the latest policy settings, the enforcement will not work as expected. Applying the policy at the user level (B) would still restrict installations if the policy were correctly configured for user permissions. Disabling the software enforcement option (C) would affect all users, not just a subset. While connecting via VPN (D) could interfere with some enforcement mechanisms, it typically does not bypass local policies unless specifically configured that way, making the agent version the primary factor in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A. When a device connects to Wi-Fi but has no internet access, it could indicate an IP conflict. Verifying that the iPhone’s IP address is not conflicting with another device on the network (A) is the most logical next step. An IP conflict can cause connectivity issues even when connected to the network. Option (B) "Update the Wi-Fi profile" might be useful for general connection issues but would not resolve an IP conflict. Option (C) "Disable Wi-Fi Assist" is only relevant if the device switches between Wi-Fi and cellular, which is not the case here. Option (D) "Set the DNS server" is a good step for DNS issues, but this scenario specifically mentions no internet access, which is more indicative of an IP conflict. Therefore, option (A) is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: D. The correct approach for the employee is to use the company's approved file-sharing and cloud storage solutions instead of iCloud (D). Many corporations enforce restrictions that block iCloud access to prevent data from being synced to personal accounts or external cloud environments, maintaining control over company information. Option A is incorrect because requesting temporary access to iCloud may violate company policies, and alternative corporate solutions are likely already in place for file sharing. Option B is incorrect because disabling corporate restrictions is not an option for the employee under MDM management, as it is controlled by the IT department. Option C is incorrect because using a personal Apple ID to bypass restrictions would also violate company policy and potentially compromise data security.

Correct Answer: B. The most likely cause of the performance issues is the outdated graphics card (NVIDIA GTX 1050 Ti), which is not powerful enough to run modern AAA games at high settings (B). While the system has sufficient RAM (8 GB) for gaming at medium settings, modern AAA titles require more powerful graphics cards to handle high-end textures, lighting, and frame rates. Upgrading to a newer graphics card, such as an NVIDIA RTX series, would provide the necessary performance boost for smoother gameplay. Option A is incorrect because the Intel Core i3 processor, while not ideal for gaming, is unlikely to be the primary bottleneck, especially since the poor performance is specifically related to graphical quality. Option C is incorrect because upgrading RAM to 16 GB, while beneficial for multitasking, will not address the limitations of the graphics card in this scenario. Option D is also incorrect because power supply issues typically manifest as system instability or crashes, not poor frame rates. Therefore, upgrading the graphics card (B) is the most effective solution to improve gaming performance.

Correct Answer: C. The shared secret is a crucial configuration element used to establish a secure connection between the RADIUS server and the access points (APs). If this shared secret is mismatched, authentication requests from the APs will fail to be forwarded to the RADIUS server, leading to no visible log entries on the server. This explains why the affected devices' authentication attempts are not reaching the server (Option C). Option A is incorrect because using WPA2-Personal would not send authentication requests to a RADIUS server in the first place, as WPA2-Personal does not utilize centralized authentication. Option B is also incorrect because if the encryption type were unsupported, the requests would still reach the server but fail during the authentication phase. Option D is incorrect because missing certificates would result in authentication failures, not a complete absence of logs on the server (A-D).

Correct Answer: B. The administrator can use the net user command to modify account settings. Option B is correct because the /expires:never switch ensures that the account will never expire, and /passwordchg:no prevents the user from changing their password. This combination meets both of the administrator's requirements. Option A (/active:no /passwordchg:no) disables the account, which is not what the administrator intends, making it incorrect. Option C (/passwordreq:no /passwordchg:no) disables the requirement for a password altogether but does not address account expiration, so it is also incorrect. Option D (/expires:never /passwordreq:no) ensures that the account will not expire but disables the password requirement, which is not appropriate for maintaining account security. Therefore, option B provides the correct solution for preventing password changes and setting the account to never expire.

Option C is correct because the migration involves handling sensitive customer data, and any data loss or exposure would have a major impact on the institution’s operations and reputation. Assigning a high risk level ensures that all necessary precautions, including comprehensive testing and strong data protection measures, are prioritized. Option A is incorrect because classifying this change as low risk would imply minimal impact, which is not accurate for a project involving sensitive data migration. Option B is also incorrect because while proper planning and testing can mitigate some risks, the potential severity of data loss and security concerns elevates the overall risk level beyond medium. Option D is incorrect because a critical risk level would imply catastrophic and permanent loss, such as the inability to recover data or irreparable damage, which, while serious, is not the most likely outcome with proper backups and planning. Therefore, assigning a high risk level (C) is the most appropriate choice given the potential consequences of the migration.

Correct Answer: B. If the rmdir command does not delete a folder and no error is displayed, the most likely reason is that the folder or one of its contents is being used by an application. Option B is correct because the technician should verify that no processes are accessing the folder and ensure that it is not in use. Once the folder is no longer in use, the rmdir command can be reissued to successfully remove the directory. Option A is incorrect because rmdir /A is not a valid command, and administrative privileges are not required if the folder is not in use or locked by a process. Option C is incorrect because /F is not a valid switch for the rmdir command (it applies to the del command for forcing file deletion). Option D suggests manually deleting the contents, but this is unnecessary for an empty folder, so it is not relevant in this case. Therefore, option B provides the correct solution.

Correct Answer: B. The correct command is ls -d .*/ (B), which lists only directories (-d) that begin with a dot (.*), representing hidden directories. The trailing slash (/) ensures that only directories are displayed and no other file types. Option A is incorrect because --only-directories is not a valid option in ls, and -la would list all files, not just directories. Option C is incorrect as --hidden is not a valid flag in most Linux distributions for ls and does not address the need to list only directories. Option D is incorrect because -ld --directories-only . would only display the current directory’s details but not list hidden directories within the current directory. Therefore, only option B fulfills the scenario’s specific needs of listing hidden directories without showing other file types.

The correct answer is (A) because deleting the file immediately and revoking shared links minimizes the risk of further exposure. Notifying the security team ensures that appropriate incident response procedures are initiated to assess the impact and prevent future occurrences. Answer (B) is incorrect because renaming and moving the file does not eliminate its public accessibility and only reduces the chances of casual discovery without securing the data. Answer (C) is incorrect because changing permissions to “read-only” still leaves the sensitive data accessible to unauthorized individuals with the link, and limiting access to internal members does not comply with regulations for managing exposed regulated data. Answer (D) is incorrect because replacing the file with a modified version does not remove the original file from the cloud storage, leaving the sensitive information vulnerable. Immediate deletion and revocation of access links, followed by notification to the security team, is the most effective approach to mitigating the risk of exposure for regulated data.

The correct answer is (C) End-of-Life Operating System. An EOL operating system no longer receives security updates or patches, leaving it exposed to known vulnerabilities that are addressed in supported versions. In this scenario, the healthcare organization continued using Windows Server 2008 R2, which no longer receives updates, making it susceptible to vulnerabilities that have been patched in newer operating systems. This gap allowed the attacker to exploit a known issue and gain administrative access. Option (A) Improper Input Validation refers to failing to sanitize user input, which is not relevant to this scenario. Option (B) Weak Passwords involve easily guessable credentials, but the root issue here is a vulnerable EOL operating system. Option (D) Unencrypted Data Transmission involves sending sensitive data in an unsecured manner, which does not explain how the attacker gained access. Thus, the most accurate answer is (C) End-of-Life Operating System.

Correct Answer: A. The best way to manage location services effectively is to go to System Preferences > Privacy, select Location Services, and manually approve only trusted apps while deselecting others (A). This provides control over which apps have access to location data, ensuring privacy while allowing certain trusted apps to use the service. Option B is too restrictive, as it prevents even trusted apps from accessing location services. Option C is incorrect because macOS does not have an "Ask Every Time" feature for location services; the user must approve or deny access on a per-app basis. Option D is incorrect because managing location services from a separate user profile would be more cumbersome and less efficient than handling it within the same profile's Privacy settings.

Correct Answer: A. Enabling full-disk encryption (A) ensures that all data stored on the device is encrypted, making it unreadable without the proper decryption key. This protection is effective even if the tablet’s internal storage is removed and connected to another device, as the encrypted data cannot be accessed without the appropriate credentials or encryption key. This is particularly important for protecting sensitive research data if the device is lost or stolen. Limiting the visibility of application data (B) is a partial benefit of some encryption methods but does not describe full-disk encryption’s impact. Making it impossible for the device to boot without the correct user credentials (C) is not necessarily true; encryption protects data access, but a device might still boot up to a login screen. Requiring an internet connection to authenticate the encryption key on startup (D) is not typically how device encryption works, as encryption is local to the device and does not rely on an internet connection. Thus, option A is the most accurate description of how device encryption protects data in this scenario.

Option (A) is correct because uninstalling non-compliant software, issuing a reminder of the AUP, and implementing a group policy that restricts future software installations ensures that the policy is enforced effectively. This combination of corrective action and preventive measures reduces the risk of future violations and maintains the integrity of company devices. Option (B) is incorrect because relying on employees to uninstall the software themselves without implementing technical controls could lead to incomplete compliance and repeated violations. Option (C) is incorrect because re-imaging workstations is time-consuming and disruptive, especially if the software can be easily uninstalled and compliance can be maintained through policy enforcement. Option (D) is incorrect because while training is useful for reinforcing the policy, it does not address the immediate non-compliance issue or implement technical restrictions to prevent future violations.

The correct answer is (B) because it allows the technician to actively listen to the client’s complete explanation without interruptions, take comprehensive notes to show that the concerns are being documented, and then address the scope of the current visit by suggesting separate sessions for unrelated issues. This approach maintains professionalism, shows empathy, and respects the client’s need to express their concerns while ensuring the primary issue is addressed. Option (A) is incorrect because redirecting the client too early can come across as dismissive and damage rapport. Option (C) is incorrect because interrupting the client mid-sentence may seem disrespectful and could escalate the client’s frustration. Option (D) is incorrect because ignoring part of the client’s explanation could make the client feel that their concerns are not being taken seriously, harming trust and the technician-client relationship.

Correct Answer: B. Drilling is a method of physical destruction that involves puncturing the hard drive at strategic points to create holes that specifically target the platters within the drive (B). This is effective because the platters are where all data is magnetically stored, and drilling through them renders the platters unbalanced, making them impossible to spin correctly and severely distorting the magnetic fields that store the data. When the platters are unbalanced or fractured, data cannot be accessed or reconstructed, even with advanced forensic techniques. Option (A) is incorrect because targeting the read/write heads would not fully prevent data recovery if the platters remain intact. Option (C) is incorrect because destroying the spindle alone would prevent spinning, but data recovery methods can still read stationary platters. Option (D) is incorrect because disrupting the actuator arm prevents read/write operations but does not render the stored data irrecoverable if the platters are still functional.

Correct Answer: C. In this scenario, using Task Scheduler to inspect scheduled tasks is the most appropriate step because malware often uses scheduled tasks to persistently re-enable itself after removal, making Option (C) the correct answer. Investigating Task Scheduler can reveal hidden or suspicious tasks that run during system startup or at specific intervals. Option (A), checking for unusual files, is useful but does not directly address how the extension is reappearing. Option (B), reviewing the Event Viewer, may show some logs, but malware that modifies browser settings often does so silently, leaving no traces in standard logs. Option (D), resetting the browser, is a reactive step that should be taken after verifying and removing the root cause, as resetting the browser alone won’t remove a scheduled task that reinstalls the extension.

Correct Answer: A. Revoking the social media app’s access to the Photos library and checking its settings (A) is the best initial step because it immediately stops the app from accessing personal photos, preventing further leaks. Given that the app requested additional permissions under the guise of enhanced features, it is likely that these permissions were misused. Option (B) would secure the user’s iCloud account but does not address the local app behavior that led to the leak. Option (C) might be effective but is too disruptive without confirming that the app is the root cause. Option (D) is a good secondary step if revoking permissions does not stop the leak, but it should not be the first response. Thus, revoking the app’s access (A) is the most practical step to secure the data and identify the source of the problem without disrupting other device functions.

Correct Answer: A. Lowering the screen resolution in an RDP session (Option A) can significantly reduce the bandwidth required and improve performance, especially on slower or less reliable connections. Higher screen resolutions require more data to be transmitted, potentially slowing down the connection. Enabling audio and video redirection (Option B) would increase the bandwidth usage, further degrading performance. Increasing the color depth (Option C) would also consume more bandwidth, making the session slower. Disabling bitmap caching (Option D) would reduce performance, as this feature is designed to improve the efficiency of repeated image rendering across sessions.

The correct answer is (B) Open "Power Options," click "Change advanced power settings," and disable the USB selective suspend setting under "USB settings" for both "On battery" and "Plugged in." Disabling USB selective suspend ensures that the system does not power down USB ports during periods of inactivity, preventing devices like the USB headset from disconnecting. Option (A) is incorrect because adjusting the display settings does not impact USB power management. Option (C) is incorrect because selecting the "High Performance" plan does not guarantee that selective suspend is disabled, and manual configuration of the setting is still required. Option (D) is incorrect because changing the sleep settings only affects when the system goes to sleep, not how USB devices are powered during normal use.

The correct answer is (C) because isolating the shared drive prevents further access to the prohibited content without compromising potential evidence. It is also essential to document the findings accurately and escalate to management and the legal team, as they will determine if law enforcement needs to be involved. Answer (A) is incorrect because deleting the files before management or legal has been consulted would destroy evidence, potentially hindering any internal or external investigation. Answer (B) is incorrect because involving law enforcement without first consulting the legal team could expose the company to liability and should only be done after internal approval. Answer (D) is incorrect because conducting a deeper investigation before securing evidence can alter file timestamps or metadata, which can complicate legal proceedings. Proper escalation and consultation with legal and management teams ensure that the company’s response is compliant with its policies and legal obligations.

Correct Answer: C. The issue is caused by leftover files and registry entries that were not properly removed, interfering with the new installation. Using Start-Process with msiexec /x (C) will execute a proper uninstallation of the existing application, ensuring that all associated files and registry entries are deleted before the new version is installed. Option (A) is incorrect because manually deleting files with Get-Item is not a reliable method for complete uninstallation and could lead to missing or orphaned entries. Option (B) is incorrect because Uninstall-Module is used for removing PowerShell modules, not traditional software packages. Option (D) is incorrect because Set-ExecutionPolicy only adjusts script execution permissions and does not influence the ability to cleanly uninstall an application.

The correct answer is A). The issue is caused by the server pointing to an incorrect NTP server, which leads to time drift. Using the w32tm /config command (A) to update the NTP server address ensures that the server syncs to a reliable time source, eliminating the time drift. Manually setting the time and time zone (B) might temporarily fix the issue but won’t prevent future drift if the NTP server remains incorrect. Changing to local CMOS time (C) is not recommended, as NTP provides more accurate and reliable time synchronization. Enabling “Set time automatically” (D) is redundant in this scenario because the root cause is the incorrect NTP configuration, not a disabled setting. Thus, reconfiguring the correct NTP server address (A) is the best solution.

The correct answer is A. Setting a minimum password length of 12 characters and enabling complexity requirements ensures that passwords meet best practices by requiring a combination of uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and special characters. This configuration makes it significantly harder for attackers to guess or crack the password using brute-force or dictionary methods. Option (B) enforces password history and a shorter length, which may prevent password reuse but does not meet the length and complexity requirements. Option (C) focuses on password aging, which is unrelated to length and complexity, and option (D) has a minimum length of 10 but enables reversible encryption, which weakens security by making stored passwords easier to decrypt. Therefore, only option (A) meets the requirements for both length and complexity.

Correct Answer: A. Switching to SSTP (A) is the best solution because SSTP uses TCP port 443, which is the same port used for HTTPS traffic. This port is almost never blocked by ISPs or firewalls, ensuring reliable connectivity from various locations. Disabling firewalls and antivirus software (B) on employee devices is not a recommended solution due to security concerns and would not necessarily resolve ISP-related blocking. Using PPTP (C) could improve compatibility, but PPTP is considered insecure and is often blocked by modern ISPs due to its outdated encryption. Enabling NAT traversal on L2TP/IPsec (D) could help in some scenarios, but L2TP/IPsec is still subject to protocol restrictions and blocking by certain ISPs, making SSTP the more reliable choice in this situation.

Correct Answer: A. The most efficient way to distribute the update in this scenario is to use the downloadable file for immediate deployment (A). Since the company has high-speed internet across all locations, downloading the update allows for the fastest possible deployment to all workstations without waiting for physical media. Option B is incorrect because waiting for physical media introduces unnecessary delays in the update process when the downloadable file is already available. Option C, while attempting to balance both methods, introduces complexity and logistical delays when the downloadable method is clearly faster. Option D is inefficient because creating physical copies for distribution adds unnecessary steps and delays to the process when direct downloads would be much quicker. Therefore, the fastest and most efficient solution is to use the downloadable version (A).

Correct Answer: B. Enabling detailed network traffic logging (B) is the most effective initial step to pinpoint the exact source of the abnormal traffic. By monitoring the traffic in real-time, the administrator can identify which application is generating the outbound data and determine whether it is legitimate or malicious. Option (A) is less effective initially because it would not identify the behavior causing the traffic spike; some apps may be legitimate but misconfigured. Option (C) is too drastic as a first response and would cause data loss, potentially violating corporate policies. Option (D) may mitigate future vulnerabilities but does not provide immediate insight into the root cause of the current issue. Thus, option (B) allows for a precise investigation without disrupting the device’s operation, enabling the administrator to isolate and address the problem directly.

Correct Answer: A. The IT manager should request new certificates that include specific serial numbers and device details (A) because generic certificates do not provide the granularity needed for compliance with data protection laws, making it difficult to confirm that each device was destroyed. Proper documentation should list individual device information to create a comprehensive audit trail, ensuring that no asset is overlooked. Option (B) is incorrect because an internal audit without proper certification would not resolve the external compliance requirement, and tracking inventory alone does not guarantee destruction. Option (C) is a violation of best practices, as it lacks sufficient proof of destruction and creates a compliance risk. Option (D) would help with future compliance, but it does not address the inadequacies of the current certification, which must be rectified immediately.

The correct answer is (B) because it addresses the question without making the employee feel inadequate, while also setting boundaries to keep the session on track. This response acknowledges the employee’s need for clarification but offers to provide more help outside of the group setting, maintaining professionalism and avoiding judgment. Option (A) is incorrect because it dismisses the employee’s questions and implies that their concerns are not valid, which can damage morale. Option (C) is incorrect because stating that the questions are “very basic” is condescending and could make the employee feel embarrassed or reluctant to ask for help in the future. Option (D) is incorrect because it directly suggests that the employee is not ready for the session, which could alienate the individual and make them feel unwelcome or judged, impacting their learning experience and overall engagement.

Correct Answer: A. Requiring a PIN code as a fallback mechanism (A) is the most secure approach because it ensures that if facial recognition fails or is bypassed using spoofing techniques, there is an additional layer of authentication. This setup is common for highly sensitive environments because facial recognition alone can be susceptible to attacks using photos or similar facial images. Smart lock (B) may be useful for user convenience but reduces the security since it can keep the device unlocked in potentially vulnerable areas. Disabling the screen timeout (C) increases security risks by leaving the device accessible for longer periods, thus making it more susceptible to attacks or shoulder surfing. Using a weaker facial recognition setting (D) compromises security further, as it makes it easier to bypass the system using less sophisticated means. Thus, option A provides the best combination of security and usability for a device with sensitive financial data.

Correct Answer: B. The most appropriate solution is to assign additional guards to monitor entry points during high-traffic periods (B). By increasing the number of guards during busy times, it is easier to spot and deter tailgating attempts. This proactive approach addresses the core issue without significantly disrupting regular access for employees. Option A would slow down entry unnecessarily and could lead to operational inefficiencies. Option C incorrectly shifts the focus to a technical solution, which might help but would not replace the need for physical oversight during high-traffic periods. Option D focuses on bag inspection, which is not directly relevant to preventing tailgating. Therefore, increasing the presence of guards (B) is the most effective solution for this scenario.

The correct answer is (A) Open "File Explorer Options," go to the "General" tab, and set "Open File Explorer to" as "This PC." Selecting "This PC" as the default view provides immediate access to all drives, folders, and libraries, giving the user full visibility of the folder structure without needing to navigate through different locations. This configuration is ideal for users who want quick access to the entire file system. Option (B) is incorrect because enabling "Always show icons, never thumbnails" affects how files and folders are visually represented, not their visibility in the navigation pane. Option (C) is incorrect because search indexing settings do not control folder visibility within File Explorer. Option (D) is incorrect because enabling "Automatically expand to current folder" ensures that the current folder is expanded in the navigation pane but does not control the default view when File Explorer is first opened.

Correct Answer: C. The most practical solution is to disable the application in the Startup tab of Task Manager (C). This ensures the application will not automatically start on boot, but the user can still manually launch it when required. Changing the application's startup type to "Manual" (A) cannot be done directly within Task Manager, as this option applies to services, not regular applications. Uninstalling and reinstalling the application (B) would be unnecessary and more time-consuming, especially when the application can simply be disabled from startup. Using msconfig (D) to remove the application from the boot sequence is incorrect as this tool is generally used for system-level configurations, and Task Manager offers a more straightforward way to manage startup applications.

Correct Answer: B. The correct solution is to have an administrator install the plugin using an elevated command prompt (B). This approach maintains the principle of least privilege by ensuring that the user continues to use a standard account, while the necessary administrative rights are applied temporarily for the installation. Temporarily switching to an administrator account (A) is not recommended as it can lead to security risks if the user continues to use the account for other tasks. Disabling UAC settings (C) is highly insecure and could potentially allow unauthorized changes to the system, making this option unacceptable. Converting the standard account to an administrator account and switching back (D) is cumbersome and may lead to inconsistent configurations if not done properly, which is not a practical solution. Therefore, option (B) is the most secure and efficient method for installing the plugin without violating security policies.

The correct answer is (B) because maintaining nightly on-site backups for operational use and sending a weekly full backup to a cloud storage solution ensures compliance with the regulation to have off-site storage, while also minimizing the cost associated with daily off-site transfers. This strategy also guarantees that data can be recovered within 48 hours using the cloud backups. Option (A) is incorrect because performing daily off-site full backups would increase storage costs significantly and put a strain on bandwidth. Option (C) is incorrect because a differential scheme would result in a large number of cumulative changes, making restoration complex and risking non-compliance with the 48-hour requirement. Option (D) is incorrect because rotating tapes monthly increases the risk of data loss and fails to meet the 48-hour recovery mandate. Thus, using weekly full backups with cloud storage (B) is the most practical and cost-effective solution for meeting compliance requirements.

The correct answer is (A). Enabling "Let Windows manage my default printer" in the printer settings allows the system to automatically switch the default printer to the one most recently used in the current network or location, making it ideal for users who frequently move between offices. (B) is incorrect because manually setting the default printer each time the user changes locations is impractical and time-consuming. (C) is incorrect because adding printers to "Device manager" does not manage default printer selection based on location. (D) is incorrect because Bluetooth is not typically used for managing network printers in an office environment, and proximity detection is not a feature for networked printers.

Option A is correct because forwarding TCP port 443 (HTTPS) allows secure web traffic to reach the internal web server. This configuration ensures that external users can access the web server using a secure, encrypted connection, which is critical for maintaining data confidentiality during transmission. The router will accept incoming HTTPS traffic on its public IP address and forward it to the web server’s internal IP address (192.168.10.15), maintaining end-to-end encryption. Option B is incorrect because UDP port 53 is used for DNS, not web traffic, and forwarding it to UDP port 80 would break the communication path. Option C is incorrect because port 8080 is typically used for alternate HTTP traffic, and port 21 is used for FTP, not web services. Option D is incorrect because UDP port 161 is used for SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), and UDP port 22 does not exist in common protocols; port 22 is typically TCP and used for SSH. Therefore, correctly forwarding TCP port 443 to the web server (A) is the appropriate solution for secure web access.

Correct Answer: A. The most effective solution is to enable automatic clearing of browsing data upon closing the browser (A). This ensures that all browsing history, cache, and login information are deleted automatically after each session, preserving user privacy without requiring manual intervention. Option (B) is incorrect because disabling cookies entirely can cause functional issues with many sites, as cookies are necessary for maintaining sessions and site preferences. Option (C) is a temporary solution, as incognito mode may still leave traces such as downloaded files or cached images. Option (D) introduces the risk of human error and is not practical for repeated use. Thus, (A) is the correct answer, providing a reliable and consistent approach to maintaining privacy.

Correct Answer: B. The issue is that the script fails silently for some users, making it difficult to identify the problem. Adding Set-PSDebug -Trace 2 (B) will enable detailed logging of script execution, including variable states and command traces, which can help pinpoint where and why the script is failing. Option (A) is incorrect because Write-Output only displays basic messages and would not provide detailed diagnostic information. Option (C) is incorrect because -Force only forces the creation of the drive, which does not address the root cause of script failure. Option (D) is incorrect because using if conditions to check drive availability would only work if the script failure was related to drive conflicts, which is not specified in the scenario.

Correct Answer: C. The correct gesture is to spread with the thumb and three fingers on the trackpad to temporarily reveal the desktop (C). This gesture allows the user to quickly access the desktop without minimizing or closing any windows, and the windows will return when the user performs the reverse gesture. Option A is incorrect because pinching with four fingers opens Launchpad, not the desktop. Option B is incorrect because swiping up with four fingers opens Mission Control, but it requires additional steps to select the desktop. Option D is incorrect because swiping down with three fingers triggers App Exposé, which shows all windows of the current application, not the desktop.

Correct Answer: A. The correct configuration file is /etc/samba/smb.conf (A). This file is the main configuration file for Samba, where administrators define shared directories, set permissions, and configure other settings for Samba shares. Option B, /etc/samba/samba.conf, is incorrect as this is not the correct file for Samba configuration. Option C, /usr/share/smb.conf, is incorrect because the Samba configuration file is not located in the /usr/share/ directory. Option D, /home/samba.conf, is not a valid configuration path for Samba. Therefore, option A is the correct answer for configuring Samba shares.

Correct Answer: B. The correct command is apt-get purge package-name (B). The purge option removes the package along with its configuration files, ensuring that no residual files remain on the system. This is particularly useful when troubleshooting issues where configuration files may be causing problems. Option A, apt-get remove package-name, only removes the package but leaves configuration files intact, which may not resolve the issue. Option C, apt-get clean package-name, clears the local package cache but does not remove the installed package or its configuration files, making it irrelevant to the scenario. Option D, apt-get autoremove package-name, removes unnecessary packages that were installed as dependencies but does not target the specified package itself. Therefore, option B is the correct choice to fully remove the package and its configuration files.

The correct answer is (B) Brute-Force Attack. A brute-force attack involves repeatedly attempting different password combinations until the correct one is found. In this scenario, the attacker systematically cycled through a list of common passwords targeting multiple accounts until they eventually gained access. This rapid, automated guessing is a hallmark of brute-force attacks. Option (A) Phishing involves using deceptive emails or messages to trick users into revealing their credentials, which is not applicable here. Option (C) Man-in-the-Middle Attack involves intercepting communication between two parties, which is unrelated to systematically guessing passwords. Option (D) Spoofing involves disguising the attacker’s identity by altering identifiers such as IP or MAC addresses, which is not relevant to the method used in this scenario. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is (B) Brute-Force Attack.

Correct Answer: B. The most likely cause is that the scanners are having difficulty capturing accurate vein patterns when palms are moist or sweaty from frequent use (B). Vein pattern recognition requires a clear view of the blood vessels under the skin, and moisture can interfere with the scanner’s ability to create an accurate image. Installing hand dryers near the entry points will allow employees to dry their hands before scanning, significantly improving accuracy. Option A incorrectly attributes the issue to overheating, which is less common for biometric scanners. Option C suggests a software issue, but outdated algorithms would cause constant issues, not just during peak times. Option D addresses dirt and oil buildup, which would impact the scanner over time, not just at busy periods. Thus, B is the most practical solution.

The correct answer is A). The "Kernel-Power 41" error typically indicates that the system lost power unexpectedly, which can often be attributed to overheating components such as the CPU or GPU. Using a hardware monitoring tool (A) will allow the technician to check for high temperatures and confirm if thermal shutdowns are occurring. While updating the BIOS (B) might resolve certain stability issues, it is not the initial step when the problem appears to be hardware-related, especially if no recent changes have been made to the firmware. Running a memory diagnostic (C) can be relevant if there are signs of memory corruption, but in this case, there are no memory dumps or BSODs, which are typical indicators of memory faults. Booting into Safe Mode and disabling startup programs (D) is unnecessary when the problem occurs during minimal use, indicating a hardware issue rather than a software conflict. Therefore, checking for overheating (A) is the most logical first step in this scenario.