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CISM Practice Exam 3
Take your exam preparation to the next level with fully simulated online practice tests designed to replicate the real exam experience. These exams feature realistic questions, timed conditions, and detailed explanations to help you assess your knowledge, identify weak areas, and build confidence before test day.
1. An organization partners with a software-as-a-service (SaaS) provider to manage customer relationship management (CRM) activities. To monitor the provider’s compliance with agreed security requirements, what action should the security team take?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Requiring annual independent penetration testing (B) ensures that the provider’s systems are evaluated for vulnerabilities and adherence to security requirements by a neutral third party. Requesting logs (A) provides operational insight but not a comprehensive security assessment. Real-time monitoring (C) is generally impractical for SaaS arrangements. Limiting access (D) reduces risk exposure but does not address overall compliance. Penetration testing provides actionable insights into the provider’s security posture.
2. After a successful containment of a cyberattack, the organization identified that critical post-incident findings were not communicated to senior management, leading to incomplete risk mitigation decisions. What action should the organization prioritize to address this gap?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Implementing a post-incident reporting process (A) ensures that senior management receives comprehensive updates, enabling them to make informed risk mitigation decisions. Communicating only high-level summaries (B) risks omitting critical details needed for strategic decisions. Automating report generation (C) may improve efficiency but does not ensure that the right information is included. Assigning an analyst for briefings (D) may address immediate needs but does not establish a consistent process. A structured reporting process improves transparency and supports effective decision-making at the executive level.
3. During a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) exercise, it was observed that a lack of communication between team members caused delays in coordinating system recovery tasks. What improvement should the organization prioritize to enhance incident management readiness?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Implementing a centralized communication platform (A) ensures that team members can coordinate effectively during recovery operations, minimizing delays caused by miscommunication. This directly addresses the issue observed during the DRP exercise. Assigning a communication officer (B) adds oversight but does not solve the underlying issue of communication inefficiencies. Redesigning the DRP to reduce reliance on coordination (C) is impractical, as teamwork is essential for disaster recovery. Conducting root cause analysis (D) identifies issues but does not provide an immediate solution. A centralized platform ensures seamless communication and improves recovery efficiency.
4. An organization’s incident classification process is designed to prioritize high-severity incidents. However, during an audit, it is found that some low-severity incidents are consuming excessive resources. What should the information security manager prioritize to address this issue?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Refining classification criteria (A) ensures accurate prioritization, allowing resources to focus on high-severity incidents while efficiently handling lower-priority issues. Limiting senior staff involvement (B) addresses resource allocation but does not fix classification accuracy. Automating responses (C) may streamline processes but does not address the root issue. Reducing review frequency (D) risks neglecting potential escalations. Accurate classification ensures effective resource management and prioritization.
5. The information security team has identified inconsistencies in how different departments apply the organization’s security standards. What should the security manager do to address this issue?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Developing a centralized oversight process (A) ensures consistent application of security standards across all departments. Assigning interpretation responsibilities to departments (B) risks further inconsistencies. Simplifying standards (C) may improve clarity but does not address enforcement. Audits (D) identify issues but do not provide a mechanism for ensuring consistency. Centralized oversight promotes uniform compliance and accountability.
6. In a global organization, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to establish consistent security roles across all regional offices. Which of the following practices would BEST achieve this objective?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: Standardized role descriptions that account for regional differences provide consistency while ensuring that specific needs are met. This hybrid approach aligns global strategies with local requirements and ensures security roles are understood and respected across regions. Allowing regions to define their own roles may lead to inconsistencies, while mandating uniform structures ignores regional nuances. A centralized knowledge base is useful for guidance but doesn't directly establish role definitions.
7. An organization has implemented a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution to safeguard sensitive information. To verify the control’s effectiveness, what should the security manager review?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Reviewing the number of incidents where DLP prevented unauthorized data exfiltration (A) measures the solution's effectiveness in managing the risk of data loss. Employee training (B) supports awareness but does not assess the DLP control itself. Costs (C) are important for budgeting but do not measure risk mitigation. Update frequency (D) ensures operational reliability but not effectiveness. Prevented incidents provide direct evidence of DLP’s impact.
8. The legal department is finalizing a contract with a logistics vendor that will have access to the organization’s internal tracking system. What security requirement should the information security team recommend including in the contract?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Requiring multi-factor authentication (A) provides a strong layer of protection for accessing the organization’s internal tracking system, directly mitigating security risks. Providing a list of employees (B) ensures accountability but does not enhance system security. Conducting awareness training (C) is beneficial but does not directly protect system access. Unrestricted audits (D) may not be feasible or acceptable to the vendor. Multi-factor authentication aligns with best practices for securing access.
9. A logistics company wants to ensure its business continuity management (BCM) strategy aligns with its overall risk assessment findings. Which metric should be prioritized when analyzing the risk of disruptions?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: The recovery point objective (RPO) should be prioritized because it indicates the maximum acceptable amount of data loss due to disruptions, directly influencing how the business continuity plan aligns with overall risk assessment findings. The financial cost of implementing disaster recovery is relevant but less impactful than achieving a functional RPO. The number of data backups and the duration of security awareness training are important but not as critical as minimizing data loss and aligning with risk findings.
10. A manufacturing company is preparing a business case for implementing a disaster recovery solution. Decision-makers are concerned about the potential downtime caused by system failures. What should the business case emphasize to secure approval?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Emphasizing cost savings from reduced RTOs (A) demonstrates how the disaster recovery solution minimizes downtime, addressing decision-makers’ concerns effectively. Technical details (B) may not align with business priorities. Industry failure frequency (C) highlights risks but does not justify the specific investment. Vendor reputation (D) adds credibility but does not directly address the business case’s focus on downtime reduction. Cost savings tied to improved recovery times provide a strong rationale for the investment.
11. The information security manager at a research organization must revise the existing incident response procedures to reflect changes in their data processing activities. What should be the manager's first step?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: The first step should be reviewing current data processing workflows to understand the new data flows. Understanding these workflows provides insight into how data is processed, accessed, and protected, revealing potential weaknesses that the incident response procedures should address. This step also helps the security manager adapt the procedures to the updated workflows. While consulting threat intelligence, ensuring compliance, and benchmarking are important, they all require a comprehensive understanding of the data processing activities.
12. A security manager is implementing data loss prevention (DLP) controls to prevent confidential data from leaving the organization. The manager must ensure that the DLP system integrates with existing email security solutions. Which of the following is the MOST effective integration step?
Correct Answer: B. Explanation: Routing email traffic through the DLP appliance ensures that all outbound communications are scanned for sensitive information leakage, even if encryption or other protocols obfuscate data in transit. By integrating DLP with email security, the organization maintains a centralized control point. While Option A provides similar monitoring features, it may result in redundancy if the existing security solution offers rerouting capabilities. Endpoint agents (Option C) might miss data leakage occurring outside managed endpoints, and network-layer DLP (Option D) could generate significant noise, reducing efficiency.
13. After a recent cybersecurity incident, an organization discovers that its web application is vulnerable to cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks. Which control should be prioritized to eliminate this vulnerability?
Correct Answer: C. Explanation: Training developers to sanitize user inputs and escape special characters directly prevents the injection of untrusted scripts, eliminating the root cause of XSS attacks. Web application firewalls and CSPs can reduce the impact of these attacks but are not as comprehensive. Encryption via TLS ensures data integrity but does not prevent malicious script injection.
14. An organization recently experienced a security breach due to inconsistent implementation of access control measures across departments. What should the organization prioritize when revising its information security policy to prevent similar incidents?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Requiring uniform access control standards across departments (A) ensures consistency in implementation, reducing the risk of gaps that lead to breaches. Delegating responsibility to department managers (B) may result in inconsistent application. Focusing exclusively on technical controls (C) overlooks the need for procedural consistency. Limiting the policy to critical systems (D) leaves other areas vulnerable. Uniform standards ensure comprehensive and consistent access control measures.
15. An organization’s information security team has noticed a significant increase in targeted phishing attacks. This trend is attributed to recent high-profile business expansions, making the organization a more attractive target. What action should be taken to address this external influence on the information security strategy?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Enhancing employee training programs (A) directly addresses the root cause of phishing risks by equipping staff with the knowledge to recognize and respond to advanced phishing techniques, reducing the likelihood of successful attacks. Improving incident response (B) is important but reactive, not preventative. Implementing email filtering solutions (C) helps reduce phishing attempts but does not address social engineering tactics that bypass technical controls. Delaying action (D) increases vulnerability to phishing attacks. Training provides a proactive defense against this external influence.
16. During a risk assessment, a medium-risk vulnerability is identified in a non-critical system. Based on the organization’s risk appetite, the risk is deemed acceptable. What is the most appropriate risk treatment option in this case?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Accepting the risk and documenting it (A) aligns with the organization’s decision that the risk is within acceptable levels, requiring no immediate action. Mitigating the risk (B) wastes resources on a low-priority issue. Transferring the risk (C) is unnecessary for acceptable risks. Escalating the risk to senior management (D) is unnecessary and inefficient. Documenting and monitoring ensures the risk remains manageable.
17. After a data breach, an organization’s incident response team discovered that the containment measures outlined in the incident response plan were insufficient to isolate the affected systems. What should the team prioritize to prevent this issue in future incidents?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Reviewing and simulating containment procedures (A) is the most effective way to identify and address gaps in the incident response plan, ensuring that containment measures are comprehensive and actionable. Investing in EDR tools (B) is a useful enhancement but does not address the procedural gaps in the existing plan. Assigning a forensic analyst (C) is beneficial for post-incident analysis but does not directly enhance the containment procedures. Improving communication channels (D) may expedite decision-making but will not resolve issues related to insufficient containment measures. By reviewing and testing the procedures, the organization ensures that the response team can isolate threats effectively in future incidents.
18. An international financial firm designates its Chief Risk Officer (CRO) to oversee the identification and mitigation of risks associated with cross-border transactions. The CRO's responsibilities include approving risk response strategies to ensure compliance with international regulations. This role is indicative of which position?
Correct Answer: C. Explanation: A risk owner is accountable for identifying, managing, and approving response strategies for specific risks. Here, the CRO is responsible for overseeing and mitigating risks associated with cross-border transactions, making them the risk owner. Process owners (A) manage specific business functions. Control owners (B) are responsible for the effectiveness of security controls. Project owners (D) oversee project delivery and execution. The CRO's responsibility for managing specific risks aligns directly with risk ownership.
19. A company’s internal audit reveals that sensitive customer data could be exposed due to insufficient encryption protocols. The IT department head is assigned ownership of the associated control. What should be the PRIMARY responsibility of the control owner in this scenario?
Correct Answer: A. Regularly monitor the effectiveness of the encryption protocols. Explanation: The primary responsibility of the control owner is to regularly monitor the effectiveness of the encryption protocols (A) to ensure they continue to address the associated risk. Ensuring compliance (B) may be an organizational requirement but is not the control owner’s specific responsibility. Reporting risks (C) is important but secondary to monitoring effectiveness. Developing a budget proposal (D) supports control implementation but is not the core responsibility of the control owner.
20. An e-commerce organization identifies a significant discrepancy between how different departments classify security incidents, leading to inconsistencies in response. Which step will best align the organization's incident classification approach?
Correct Answer: C. Explanation: Cross-department training ensures that all teams understand and follow the classification framework consistently. Centralized rules (A) might not be feasible without training, while assigning a team (B) could create bottlenecks in urgent situations. Strict guidelines (D) should follow training for effective adherence.
21. An organization adopts an information governance framework to ensure data quality and compliance across all departments. What is the MOST important role of the governance framework in achieving this goal?
Correct Answer: B. Defining clear accountability for data management processes. Explanation: The correct answer is B. Clear accountability ensures that specific roles are responsible for maintaining data quality and compliance, enabling effective implementation of the governance framework. Option A (Establish a central repository) facilitates access but does not inherently ensure quality or compliance. Option C (Automate validation) is useful but depends on accountability for oversight and action. Option D (Create documentation) supports the framework but does not directly drive the implementation of quality or compliance measures.
22. An organization is developing an information security strategy and wants to ensure that it supports continuous improvement. What is the MOST effective component to include in the strategy to achieve this goal?
Correct Answer: B. A feedback loop for evaluating the effectiveness of controls. Explanation: The correct answer is B. A feedback loop allows the organization to continuously assess and improve the effectiveness of its security controls, ensuring adaptability to evolving threats and business needs. Option A (A defined incident response plan) focuses on reactive measures rather than proactive improvement. Option C (A compliance checklist) ensures adherence to standards but does not promote continuous improvement. Option D (An executive-level oversight committee) provides strategic direction but does not directly address the improvement of controls.
23. A multinational organization finds that its incident response plan is effective in one region but fails to address certain nuances in others, primarily due to regional differences in regulations and cyber threats. What should be the first step in ensuring consistent global incident management readiness?
Correct Answer: C. Explanation: A region-specific response plan is crucial because different regions have varying regulatory requirements and cyber threat landscapes. Customizing plans allows organizations to address specific regional needs effectively. Having a single global plan (A) may result in non-compliance or ineffective responses. Regional incident commanders (B) can help, but they still need region-specific plans to execute effectively. Regional cybersecurity experts (D) can be valuable resources but should work within the structure of tailored response plans.
24. An organization's Business Impact Analysis (BIA) identifies multiple systems with varying levels of criticality and interdependencies. During the next phase, what action should the organization take to improve incident management readiness?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: Determining the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) and prioritizing recovery plans ensures systems are restored based on their criticality and interdependencies. Isolating systems (B) could increase the risk of inefficiency, while assigning individual teams (C) may lead to resource constraints. Focusing only on the most critical system (D) ignores other important dependencies that could significantly impact business operations.
25. An organization conducts a risk assessment and identifies risks that exceed its risk appetite. How should the security team proceed?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Developing and implementing a risk mitigation plan (A) ensures that risks exceeding the organization’s risk appetite are brought within acceptable levels, aligning with organizational objectives. Documenting risks (B) increases awareness but does not address them. Transferring all high-level risks (C) may not be feasible or appropriate for all situations. Accepting risks temporarily (D) contradicts the principle of maintaining risks within the risk appetite. A mitigation plan ensures effective and proactive risk management.
26. An information security manager is designing a security awareness program for a multinational organization. Which of the following should be prioritized to ensure the program is effective across all regions?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Translating training materials into local languages (A) ensures employees in all regions can fully understand and engage with the program, increasing its effectiveness. Standardizing content (B) may overlook cultural differences. Requiring uniform completion timelines (C) does not address regional needs. Focusing only on high-risk regions (D) neglects the need for a global security culture.
27. A manufacturing company is reviewing its information security program metrics to assess the overall efficiency of its program. Which metric should be the primary indicator of program efficiency?
Correct Answer: B. Explanation: The average cost of remediating security incidents over the past year is the primary indicator of program efficiency. This metric reflects how well the security program can mitigate the impact of incidents, balancing cost and operational disruption. A lower remediation cost often indicates a more efficient security program capable of preventing significant incidents. While tracking data loss incidents, budget allocation, and unresolved vulnerabilities is important, the overall cost of remediation provides a comprehensive view of the program's financial efficiency.
28. An external regulator requests documentation related to a recent security incident. What is the most critical element the information security manager should ensure is included in the documentation?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Including a timeline of events (A) provides regulators with a clear, chronological understanding of how the organization detected, responded to, and managed the incident, demonstrating due diligence. Technical analysis (B) may be included but is secondary. A cost breakdown (C) is relevant for internal reporting but not regulatory compliance. Summarizing disciplinary actions (D) focuses on internal consequences rather than regulatory requirements. A well-documented timeline ensures accountability and compliance.
29. An organization finds that its employees view governance policies as obstacles rather than enablers of business goals. What is the MOST practical way to reshape this perception?
Correct Answer: B. Include employees in the policy development process. Explanation: The correct answer is B. Involving employees in the policy development process makes them feel valued and helps them understand how governance policies support business goals, fostering a positive perception. Option A (Revise policies to prioritize business outcomes) may align policies with goals but fails to engage employees. Option C (Impose stricter adherence) can reinforce the view of governance as an obstacle. Option D (Conduct compliance drills) focuses on enforcement rather than addressing the underlying perception issue.
30. The organization is updating its incident response plan (IRP) to reflect recent changes in its disaster recovery plan (DRP). What should the information security manager prioritize to maintain alignment between the two plans?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Ensuring escalation procedures in the IRP are consistent with DRP activation criteria (A) maintains alignment by linking incident management with recovery triggers. Referencing each plan in the other’s objectives (B) is helpful but does not ensure procedural alignment. Integrating identical communication protocols (C) is beneficial but does not address escalation or activation alignment. Annual reviews (D) help sustain alignment but may not address immediate updates. Consistency in escalation and activation ensures seamless transition from incident management to recovery.
31. An organization recently implemented a new incident response tool to improve response efficiency. During a training session, it was evident that team members were unfamiliar with the tool’s advanced features, limiting its effectiveness. What should the organization prioritize to ensure the tool’s successful integration into the incident management process?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Providing hands-on training sessions (A) ensures that team members understand how to use the tool effectively, particularly its advanced features, which are critical for maximizing its utility during incidents. Simplifying the configuration (B) limits the tool’s potential and may reduce effectiveness. Assigning a dedicated expert (C) centralizes expertise but does not build team-wide proficiency. Periodic audits (D) address configuration but do not resolve knowledge gaps. Hands-on training equips the entire team to leverage the tool fully, enhancing incident response efficiency.
32. An incident categorization system has been implemented to prioritize responses, but during a malware outbreak, multiple incidents were assigned the same high-priority category, leading to resource bottlenecks. What improvement should be made to the categorization system?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Adding subcategories within each priority level (A) provides more granularity, allowing for better differentiation and allocation of resources during simultaneous high-priority incidents. Assigning priority based on report order (B) overlooks the actual impact or urgency of incidents. Developing a resource allocation matrix (C) is helpful but does not resolve the need for better categorization. Limiting high-priority classifications (D) risks underestimating the criticality of some incidents. Subcategories enhance precision in incident classification and resource management.
33. A large tech company operating globally is analyzing the impact of an emerging threat posed by supply chain attacks. Recent breaches at vendors have led to data leaks and business disruptions. Which of the following should be prioritized to prevent and detect supply chain risks?
Correct Answer: D. Explanation: Increasing the frequency of vulnerability assessments and penetration testing on key suppliers is the most effective approach here because it identifies security weaknesses in third-party systems and ensures compliance. Comprehensive audits can be time-consuming and costly, and annual audits might not detect recent vulnerabilities. MFA enhances internal security but does not directly address risks originating from vendor systems. Training is important but alone insufficient to reveal supply chain weaknesses.
34. An information security program manager is tasked with optimizing resource allocation for information security tools. Which of the following should be prioritized to ensure a balanced and effective approach?
Correct Answer: C. Explanation: Prioritizing tools that integrate seamlessly with the organization's IT environment ensures comprehensive security coverage and minimizes the likelihood of incompatibility issues. Tools that do not align with the existing IT infrastructure may produce incomplete data or create blind spots in security monitoring, reducing the overall efficacy of the security program. While real-time monitoring, scalability, and compliance reporting are vital aspects, smooth integration remains the foundation of an effective security architecture, ensuring all other tools and processes work cohesively within the organization's broader IT environment.
35. A multinational organization wants to establish a governance structure where decision-making authority is distributed across regional offices. What is the MOST critical step to ensure this decentralized model is effective?
Correct Answer: B. Assign a governance lead for each region with clearly defined responsibilities. Explanation: The correct answer is B. Assigning a governance lead ensures accountability and enables effective decision-making at the regional level, which is critical in a decentralized structure. Option A (Mandate a single governance framework) may not address region-specific requirements. Option C (Centralize monitoring and reporting) undermines the decentralized approach and creates inefficiencies. Option D (Conduct quarterly reviews) supports oversight but does not provide the day-to-day leadership necessary for regional governance success.
36. An organization identifies several critical lessons learned from a post-incident review. What is the most appropriate way for the information security manager to ensure these lessons are applied effectively?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Updating policies and procedures (A) institutionalizes the lessons learned, ensuring they are applied in future incidents. Sharing lessons (B) raises awareness but does not ensure application. Conducting follow-up meetings (C) supports discussion but does not integrate changes into processes. Improving external relationships (D) is important but does not address internal process improvements. Incorporating lessons into policies ensures continuous improvement and preparedness.
37. A retail organization has identified risks of insider threats, such as unauthorized access to customer payment information. The risk analysis team is tasked with determining the likelihood of such threats. What is the MOST relevant factor to analyze in this scenario?
Correct Answer: A. The number of employees with access to customer payment data. Explanation: Analyzing the number of employees with access (A) directly relates to the likelihood of insider threats by determining the exposure and potential for misuse. Historical incidents (B) provide context but do not determine current likelihood. Adherence to access control policies (C) is important but relates more to mitigation than likelihood. Financial penalties (D) are relevant for impact analysis, not likelihood analysis.
38. A multinational corporation has identified varying data protection laws across different countries. How should this factor influence the development of its global information security strategy?
Correct Answer: B. Explanation: A flexible data protection framework adaptable to local requirements ensures compliance with varying laws while maintaining consistency in security measures. This framework should provide a standard set of principles that can be adapted to meet specific local laws. Applying the strictest law globally can lead to unnecessary restrictions in regions where such laws do not apply, while separate strategies for each country would be resource-intensive. Universal programs may not adequately address specific regional regulations.
39. An information security manager needs to justify a budget increase by demonstrating the program’s value to key stakeholders. Which metric should be included in the report?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Including the reduction in risk exposure (B) directly ties the security program’s value to measurable outcomes, making a compelling case for a budget increase. Reporting time spent on monitoring (A) reflects operational activity rather than strategic impact. Highlighting identified vulnerabilities (C) highlights issues but not program success. Summarizing tools (D) provides context but does not justify the program’s value. Risk reduction metrics provide the strongest justification for increased funding.
40. An organization’s leadership has established a strategic objective to strengthen its competitive advantage through digital transformation. How should the information security strategy be adjusted to align with this goal?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Integrating security controls from the planning stage (A) ensures that security is a foundational element of digital transformation, reducing risks and supporting successful implementation. Securing legacy systems (B) is important but does not address the specific challenges of digital transformation. Deploying monitoring tools (C) enhances threat detection but does not address security comprehensively. Delaying security controls (D) leaves the organization vulnerable during critical transformation phases. Proactive integration of security aligns the strategy with the goal of gaining a competitive advantage through digital initiatives.
41. An e-commerce organization detected unauthorized access to its payment gateway. To contain the incident, the response team disabled the gateway, leading to service downtime and revenue loss. What alternative containment method should the organization consider in future incidents?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Redirecting transactions to a backup gateway (B) ensures that services remain operational while containing the incident and preventing revenue loss. Transaction logging (A) is useful for monitoring but does not prevent further unauthorized access. Blocking all network traffic (C) achieves containment but causes unnecessary downtime. Suspending operations (D) minimizes risks but impacts business continuity. A backup gateway provides an effective containment solution that balances security with operational needs.
42. An ongoing data breach has been escalated to senior management. What is the primary reason for escalating the incident during the handling process?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Escalating to senior management (A) enables executive-level decisions about resources and strategic actions needed to manage the incident effectively. Informing management of operational disruptions (B) is relevant but not the primary reason for escalation. Providing a summary of forensic findings (C) is valuable but typically occurs after the incident is resolved. Compliance with regulatory requirements (D) may involve escalation but is not the sole purpose. Resource allocation ensures the incident is managed efficiently.
43. A company recently launched a new security awareness program to improve employee behavior around phishing threats. What is the MOST effective way for the information security manager to report progress to the board of directors?
Correct Answer: C. Explanation: The decline in successful phishing attacks provides direct evidence of the program's impact on reducing security risks. This metric allows the board to evaluate how effectively the awareness program mitigates threats and protects company assets. Training completion rates (Option A) measure participation, but do not assess effectiveness. Heatmaps of clicked emails (Option B) highlight vulnerabilities but may not show overall improvement. Incident reports (Option D) can be useful, but a decline in successful attacks demonstrates a stronger correlation to positive program outcomes.
44. During a review of the organization’s project management process, the security team discovers that security requirements are often overlooked in the initial planning phases. What action should the team take to address this issue?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Integrating a security review into the project approval process (A) ensures that security requirements are addressed from the beginning, reducing risks and supporting the organization’s strategy. Reviewing during implementation (B) is reactive and may miss critical design flaws. Annual training for project managers (C) improves awareness but does not enforce integration. Reviewing completed projects (D) is too late to make impactful changes. Early integration ensures alignment with security requirements throughout the project lifecycle.
45. A financial institution establishes a risk monitoring process that includes real-time alerts for significant security incidents. The security team receives an alert indicating potential unauthorized access to sensitive customer data. What should be the FIRST step to respond to this alert?
Correct Answer: B. Analyze the alert to confirm the validity of the unauthorized access incident. Explanation: Analyzing the alert (B) is the first step to validate whether the incident represents actual unauthorized access or a false positive, ensuring resources are appropriately directed. Notifying the DPO (A) is essential if the incident is confirmed but is not the initial step. Escalating to the response team (C) is premature without validation. Updating the risk dashboard (D) is necessary for documentation but should occur after the incident is validated.
46. During a post-incident review of a phishing attack, it was discovered that user-reported suspicious emails were not addressed promptly due to a lack of clear communication channels between the IT help desk and the security team. What improvement should the organization prioritize to resolve this gap?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Establishing a centralized ticketing system (A) ensures that communication between the IT help desk and the security team is streamlined and transparent, reducing delays in addressing user-reported incidents. Periodic reviews of communication protocols (B) improve oversight but do not directly resolve real-time communication gaps. Requiring users to report directly to the response team (C) bypasses the help desk, potentially overburdening the security team. Assigning a liaison (D) introduces dependency on a single individual and may not scale during high-volume incidents. A ticketing system provides an efficient, scalable solution to improve collaboration.
47. A multinational healthcare organization has identified the increasing risk of ransomware attacks targeting patient data as part of its threat landscape. As part of their information security risk assessment, which of the following actions will BEST help prioritize risk mitigation strategies?
Correct Answer: C. Analyze the likelihood and impact of a ransomware attack on critical business processes. Explanation: Analyzing the likelihood and impact (C) ensures a comprehensive understanding of how a ransomware attack could disrupt critical processes and provides a foundation for prioritizing mitigation strategies. Mapping risks to compliance obligations (A) is essential but does not directly assist in prioritizing risks. Simulating an attack (B) is valuable for readiness testing but does not provide a prioritization framework. Encrypting patient data (D) is an effective control but may not address the broader risks posed by ransomware, such as operational disruptions.
48. A BIA for a logistics company identifies that disruptions to the fleet tracking system could cause cascading delays in delivery operations. What should the incident management team prioritize to address this risk?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Integrating recovery procedures for the fleet tracking system into the incident response plan (C) ensures a structured and effective response to minimize delays during disruptions. Developing manual tracking methods (A) provides limited support and may be less efficient. Monitoring and alerting (B) is important for early detection but does not directly address recovery procedures. Training drivers (D) may reduce delays but does not address the core issue of restoring the fleet tracking system. Incorporating recovery procedures ensures the organization can minimize operational impact and quickly return to normal operations.
49. A medium-sized software development company is evaluating its information security program against the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. Which of the following is the most practical step in tailoring the framework for the organization?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: Mapping the framework's core functions to the organization's unique risk tolerance and business objectives ensures that the framework is adapted to address the company's specific threats and goals. This tailoring process allows for the identification of the most critical areas to focus on, rather than blindly implementing all core functions. Tailoring the NIST framework provides a risk-based approach, prioritizing security measures that have the most impact. Reviewing budgets, using existing examples, and aligning incident response are valuable, but only after mapping the core functions to organizational needs.
50. An organization's Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) specifies a recovery time objective (RTO) of four hours for critical systems. During a recent disaster recovery drill, the organization identified that it consistently takes six hours to fully recover. What is the best approach to improve the organization's incident management readiness?
Correct Answer: D. Explanation: Refining recovery procedures to improve efficiency helps close the gap between the current recovery time and the desired RTO. Adjusting the RTO (A) lowers the standard instead of addressing the underlying issue. Investing in resources (B) can help but may not be necessary if current procedures are inefficient. Prioritizing systems (C) is useful, but improving procedures ensures the DRP meets its goals.
51. An organization plans to integrate risk management into its business continuity planning process. What is the best action for the information security manager to take?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Identifying and prioritizing risks (A) ensures that the business continuity planning process focuses on the most critical threats, effectively integrating risk management. Developing a training program (B) enhances awareness but does not integrate risk management. Conducting a tabletop exercise (C) tests the plan’s effectiveness but does not identify or prioritize risks. Requiring monthly reports (D) provides visibility but does not ensure integration into the continuity plan. Risk prioritization aligns continuity planning with organizational objectives.
52. During a presentation to key stakeholders, the security team needs to explain why additional investments in the information security program are necessary. What is the best way to justify the request?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Comparing potential financial losses from unmitigated risks with investment costs (A) ties the funding request to measurable business impacts, providing a compelling justification. Listing technologies (B) does not address the value of the investment. Emphasizing the number of detected threats (C) highlights activity but does not justify costs. Referring to industry trends (D) lacks direct relevance to the organization’s specific needs. Financial comparisons make the case for investment by demonstrating tangible value.
53. A healthcare organization conducting a risk assessment identifies that medical devices on its network are vulnerable to exploitation due to outdated firmware. The risk assessment also reveals that there is no defined process for verifying the security of firmware updates. What is the BEST approach to address this control deficiency?
Correct Answer: A. Establish a secure firmware update process with validation controls. Explanation: Establishing a secure firmware update process (A) addresses the root cause of the deficiency and provides a sustainable method for ensuring device security. Isolating devices (B) can mitigate risks temporarily but does not address the underlying issue. Replacing devices (C) is costly and may not be feasible. Notifying manufacturers (D) is reactive and does not provide assurance of timely updates or secure practices.
54. An organization discovered a data breach and initiated an investigation. The forensic analysis revealed that logs from critical systems were incomplete, hindering the ability to determine the full scope of the breach. What should the organization do to improve future investigations?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Ensuring comprehensive log generation and retention (A) provides the necessary data for effective forensic analysis and incident investigations. Deploying advanced forensic tools (B) cannot compensate for missing logs. Focusing on containment (C) is essential but does not improve the organization’s investigative capabilities. Outsourcing to an MSSP (D) may enhance monitoring but does not address internal logging gaps. Proper log management ensures that the organization can fully understand and address the scope of future incidents.
55. An organization has classified its information assets but struggles to enforce the classification policy across all departments. What is the best action to address this issue?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Providing training (A) ensures employees understand the classification policy and how to apply it consistently, addressing enforcement issues. Assigning responsibility to managers (B) may help but does not directly improve employee understanding. Regular audits (C) identify gaps but do not address root causes. Simplifying classification levels (D) may reduce confusion but does not resolve enforcement challenges. Training fosters awareness and compliance, ensuring the policy is applied effectively.
56. A new Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to ensure that processes supporting the information security program are sustainable. What action should be prioritized?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Conducting a review of current processes (C) identifies inefficiencies and gaps, providing the foundation for sustainable improvements. Standardizing processes (A) is important but must follow a gap analysis. Automation (B) enhances efficiency but may not address all underlying issues. Assigning ownership (D) ensures accountability but does not inherently improve sustainability. A comprehensive review ensures that processes are both effective and sustainable.
57. A global manufacturing company wants to harmonize its information governance framework across multiple regions with different regulatory requirements. Which approach would be most effective in achieving this goal?
Correct Answer: C. Explanation: Adopting a core framework adaptable to each region's needs is the most effective approach for a global manufacturing company. This core framework establishes consistent principles and processes while allowing for adjustments to accommodate specific regional regulations. Centralizing functions may not account for local requirements, while region-specific frameworks risk duplication and inconsistency. International standards provide useful guidelines but may not fully address local legal and cultural nuances.
58. A company is implementing a rewards program to recognize staff contributions to security initiatives. Which of the following would be the BEST indicator of this program's success in changing the organization's security culture?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: Increased engagement in security initiatives and training programs shows that employees are internalizing security practices as a shared responsibility. This engagement signifies proactive behavior where staff actively participate in and understand the importance of security measures. While reduced helpdesk tickets, fewer incidents, and improved certification test scores indicate better security, these metrics don't directly reflect engagement. The true measure of a security culture shift is an organization-wide initiative where employees actively seek out and apply best practices in daily work.
59. An organization’s disaster recovery plan includes regular testing of backup and restoration processes. During testing, it was observed that certain files could not be restored due to data corruption. What should the information security manager do to prevent such issues in the future?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Implementing checksum validation (B) during backup operations ensures data integrity and prevents corrupted files from being stored in the backup system. Increasing the frequency of testing (A) identifies issues earlier but does not prevent corruption. User reporting (C) is helpful but not a proactive solution. Changing backup frequency (D) does not address the root cause of data corruption.
60. An organization is considering adopting key performance indicators (KPIs) for its information security program. Which of the following KPIs would best measure the program's ability to prevent data breaches?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: The percentage of data encrypted in transit and at rest (C) directly reflects the organization’s ability to prevent breaches by safeguarding sensitive information. The percentage of systems with current antivirus definitions (A) focuses narrowly on malware protection and does not fully measure breach prevention. The time elapsed since the last breach (B) is not actionable and can be misleading. The percentage of access control violations resolved (D) measures responsiveness but not preventive capability.
61. A security manager plans to update the organization's security awareness training to emphasize the importance of protecting sensitive data. Which of the following strategies would BEST reinforce the training content?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: Role-based training sessions ensure employees receive training relevant to the type of data they handle, making it easier to understand and apply secure data practices in their daily tasks. Newsletters (Option B) can raise general awareness but lack personalized guidance. Incentive programs (Option C) can promote secure practices but are difficult to measure effectively. Video modules with quizzes (Option D) focus on theoretical knowledge without necessarily translating into secure behaviors at work.
62. An information security manager is tasked with selecting a framework to guide the implementation of the organization's information security program. The organization operates globally and requires a standardized approach to demonstrate compliance with various international regulations. Which framework should the manager recommend?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: ISO/IEC 27001 (A) is an internationally recognized standard that provides a systematic approach to managing sensitive company information and ensures compliance with various global regulations, making it ideal for a multinational organization. NIST SP 800-53 (B) is comprehensive but primarily tailored to U.S. federal agencies and their contractors. PCI DSS (C) focuses on payment card data security and does not cover a broad spectrum of information security needs. GDPR (D) is a regulation rather than a framework, and while compliance with GDPR is essential, it does not provide a structured methodology for managing information security programs.
63. During the implementation of an encryption solution to protect sensitive customer data, an organization must ensure seamless integration with existing database systems. What is the best step to take to achieve this goal?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Selecting an encryption solution that supports application-layer encryption (B) ensures compatibility with existing database systems and avoids the need for major system replacements. Testing in production (A) is risky and could disrupt operations. Replacing databases (C) is unnecessary and resource-intensive. Configuring access controls (D) is a good practice but does not directly address encryption integration.
64. A security manager is tasked with developing guidelines to support the organization’s newly implemented access control policy. Which of the following should the guidelines include to ensure effective implementation?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: A step-by-step process for granting and revoking access (B) ensures the policy is actionable and provides clear instructions for implementation. A high-level statement (A) is part of the policy, not the guidelines. An overview of regulatory requirements (C) is useful but does not directly aid in operationalizing the policy. A list of systems requiring access control (D) is too narrow to constitute effective guidelines.
65. During a quarterly risk review, the information security manager identifies a significant increase in phishing attacks targeting the organization. How should this be reported to key stakeholders?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Providing statistics on attack frequency and success rates (A) gives stakeholders actionable insights into the scope and impact of the risk. Recommending investment (B) may follow the risk report but should not overshadow the presentation of facts. Focusing on technical methods (C) may overwhelm non-technical stakeholders without contextual relevance. Summarizing response steps (D) addresses remediation but not the risk trend. Quantified data allows stakeholders to assess risk impact and prioritize responses effectively.
66. The information security manager is preparing a report on the status of the organization’s risk management initiatives for the board of directors. Which of the following is the most critical element to include in the report?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The current status of high-risk vulnerabilities and their remediation plans (B) provides actionable insights for the board, helping them understand the organization’s most pressing risks and mitigation strategies. Detailed attack descriptions (A) are overly technical for the board’s needs. Summaries of new technologies (C) may be informative but are less critical than risk updates. The total number of identified risks (D) lacks context and does not prioritize key concerns.
67. The operations department of an organization is adopting automated supply chain management software. What action should the security team take to align the information security program with this initiative?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Performing a risk assessment (A) identifies potential vulnerabilities and ensures appropriate security measures are implemented, aligning with the operations department’s objective of securely adopting the software. Restricting access (B) is necessary but insufficient for comprehensive security. Relying on vendor audits (C) does not replace internal risk assessments. Protecting existing systems (D) is important but does not align directly with the new initiative. A risk assessment ensures alignment and proactive risk mitigation.
68. An organization is integrating its information security governance into corporate governance. During a board meeting, the leadership team requests metrics to evaluate the effectiveness of the integration. What type of metrics should the security team provide?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Providing Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) (A) ensures that the leadership team can evaluate how information security risks impact business objectives, aligning governance integration with corporate goals. Technical metrics (B) are too detailed and not relevant for high-level decision-making. Financial reports (C) help understand costs but do not measure effectiveness. Compliance checklists (D) address adherence to standards but do not assess the integration's impact. KRIs provide actionable insights for evaluating the alignment of information security governance with corporate governance.
69. An organization processes sensitive healthcare data and must comply with HIPAA regulations. What is the best way to identify compliance gaps in its current security practices?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Conducting a HIPAA risk assessment (A) identifies vulnerabilities, threats, and gaps in security practices, ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements. Encrypting data (B) enhances security but does not address all aspects of HIPAA. Assigning a compliance officer (C) improves oversight but does not directly identify gaps. Training employees (D) increases awareness but does not evaluate compliance gaps. A risk assessment is a comprehensive approach to identifying and addressing compliance deficiencies.
70. An information security manager noticed that some department heads are unaware of their responsibilities for enforcing security controls within their teams. What is the most effective way to address this gap?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Conducting targeted training sessions (A) ensures that department heads understand their specific responsibilities, enabling them to enforce security controls effectively. Assigning responsibilities to the IT team (B) centralizes enforcement but reduces departmental accountability. Developing a high-level document (C) lacks the specificity required for actionable responsibility. Relying on audits (D) is reactive and does not address knowledge gaps proactively. Targeted training empowers department heads to take ownership of security within their teams.
71. During a simulation test of the incident management plan, it is observed that containment procedures for malware are outdated and ineffective. What should the information security manager do next to address this issue?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Updating the containment procedures and retesting (A) ensures the incident management plan reflects current threats and validates its effectiveness. Enhancing detection capabilities (B) is important but does not address the containment process. A checklist review (C) may identify gaps but does not ensure updated procedures are tested. Investigating past incidents (D) provides insights but does not directly improve the plan. Regular updates and testing ensure the plan remains relevant and effective.
72. A company is conducting a security control test on its network. Which of the following testing methods would provide the MOST comprehensive understanding of network vulnerabilities?
Correct Answer: B. Explanation: Manual penetration testing offers a comprehensive and insightful evaluation of network security by simulating real-world attacks, exploring vulnerabilities in systems and human factors, and identifying exploitable weaknesses. While automated scanning (Option A) is efficient for broad vulnerabilities, it lacks the depth and human creativity involved in manual testing. Third-party audits (Option C) and compliance reviews (Option D) are valuable for independent verification and regulatory adherence but do not provide the same level of practical, in-depth analysis as manual penetration testing.
73. An e-commerce organization is developing an information security program to protect its customer data. The CISO must decide between investing in a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) tool or deploying multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all user accounts. What should the organization prioritize to strengthen its security posture and reduce potential risks?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Deploying MFA (B) is a critical measure to enhance authentication mechanisms and prevent account compromises, which are a significant threat in e-commerce environments. While a DLP tool (A) helps prevent data exfiltration, it does not address the initial access phase of an attack. Employee training (C) is valuable but cannot substitute for robust technical controls. Conducting an audit (D) identifies weaknesses but does not directly mitigate risks like account compromise.
74. During an audit, a telecommunications company notices a discrepancy between its documented risk tolerance levels and actual risks reported. Which monitoring and reporting action would best align their risk response efforts?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: A comprehensive gap analysis identifies discrepancies between the expected and actual risk tolerance, helping to pinpoint the causes of mismatched reporting and monitoring. This informs the organization where misalignment occurs and which response efforts require adjustment. Monthly executive reviews (B) might surface gaps but would not directly identify the root cause. Updating policy thresholds (C) is premature without understanding existing gaps. Reassigning risk ownership (D) could affect accountability but won't address the monitoring-reporting mismatch.
75. The information security manager is evaluating the effectiveness of the incident response team’s organization. Which metric provides the most actionable insight into team performance?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Measuring the average time to detect, contain, and resolve incidents (A) directly evaluates the team’s operational effectiveness and identifies areas for improvement. Certifications (B) reflect individual knowledge but do not measure performance. Frequent meetings (C) improve coordination but do not quantify effectiveness. Budget allocation (D) supports resources but does not measure team performance. Incident handling metrics provide clear, actionable insights for enhancing team efficiency.
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