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CISM Practice Exam 1
Take your exam preparation to the next level with fully simulated online practice tests designed to replicate the real exam experience. These exams feature realistic questions, timed conditions, and detailed explanations to help you assess your knowledge, identify weak areas, and build confidence before test day.
1. A security manager in a mid-sized company has noticed inefficiencies in the incident response team due to unclear role definitions. What is the MOST practical way to ensure effective coordination during an incident?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: An incident response playbook that clearly outlines roles and responsibilities ensures that team members understand their specific tasks during an incident. It serves as a guide that can be immediately referred to in a crisis, improving efficiency. An incident coordinator helps, but coordination alone may not address the root cause of unclear roles. Scenario-based training reinforces practical application but relies on foundational definitions. Rotating roles can improve flexibility but risks creating confusion during actual incidents.
2. An organization’s incident response plan (IRP) includes steps for mitigating cyberattacks but does not address dependencies on external service providers. How should the information security manager address this gap while maintaining alignment with the business continuity plan (BCP)?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Integrating SLAs with external providers into the IRP (A) ensures that response actions consider external dependencies, aligning with the BCP. Conducting an assessment (B) identifies dependencies but does not integrate them into response procedures. Adding contact details (C) improves communication but does not ensure operational alignment. Requiring providers to participate in tests (D) enhances preparedness but does not directly integrate dependencies into the plan. Including SLAs ensures the IRP and BCP account for external dependencies effectively.
3. An organization implements network segmentation to limit the spread of malware within its environment. To determine the control’s effectiveness, what should the information security manager prioritize?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Assessing whether network traffic between segments is monitored and restricted (A) directly evaluates if the segmentation control is effectively limiting malware spread. Employee training (B) is important but unrelated to segmentation. System performance (C) impacts usability but does not determine effectiveness. Implementing firewalls (D) supports segmentation but does not assess its operational success. Monitoring and restrictions ensure that segmentation is functioning as intended.
4. An organization experiences delays in detecting malware infections across its network. What should the information security manager prioritize to improve the timely identification of such incidents?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Deploying endpoint detection and response (EDR) tools (A) enables real-time monitoring and detection of malware infections, reducing delays in incident identification. Increasing manual vulnerability assessments (B) is time-intensive and not focused on active detection. Encouraging employee reporting (C) is helpful but relies on user awareness and may not identify all incidents. Updating antivirus definitions (D) is essential but does not guarantee timely detection. EDR tools provide automated and proactive detection capabilities.
5. A simulation test reveals that the incident management team is unable to restore systems within the recovery time objective (RTO). What should the information security manager prioritize to address this gap?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Reassessing and updating the plan to align with realistic RTOs (A) ensures that the plan is practical and achievable. Training the team (B) enhances skills but does not address unrealistic RTOs. Increasing test frequency (C) improves practice but does not adjust the plan. Automated recovery solutions (D) may help but are secondary to aligning goals with capabilities. A realistic and aligned plan ensures the organization can meet its recovery objectives.
6. A company has to adhere to various data retention laws and regulations across different jurisdictions. Which of the following is the BEST approach to manage these requirements effectively?
Correct Answer: C. Explanation: Due to the complexity of managing data retention laws that vary widely across jurisdictions, it's most effective to have separate policies tailored to each region's requirements. Local compliance officers will ensure that regional specifics are understood and that the policies are accurately implemented. A central team enforcing a unified policy globally may overlook regional nuances. A centralized repository may simplify management but won't inherently ensure compliance. A universal data retention policy is not practical due to varying legal requirements.
7. A financial institution’s post-incident review identified that response times during a recent breach were delayed because critical decisions required multiple layers of approval. What change should the organization make to its incident management process to address this issue?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Developing a predefined decision matrix (B) streamlines approvals by specifying roles and thresholds for decision-making during incidents, reducing delays. Empowering the response team (A) is beneficial but may introduce risks if decisions are made without oversight. Assigning a senior executive (C) centralizes decision-making but does not address systemic delays. Improving documentation (D) enhances transparency but does not resolve approval inefficiencies. A decision matrix balances efficiency with accountability, ensuring timely responses during incidents.
8. A multinational corporation finds inconsistencies in risk responses across its global operations due to regional differences. Which approach is most suitable for improving global risk reporting consistency?
Correct Answer: D. Explanation: A centralized risk management system with standardized metrics ensures consistent data collection, analysis, and reporting across regions. It aligns risk response strategies globally, reducing inconsistencies while accommodating local nuances. Standardized reports (A) may not capture regional differences well. Regional autonomy (B) could exacerbate inconsistencies. Region-specific metrics (C) might improve local accuracy but could lack a comprehensive global view. Centralization combines standardization with a global perspective, ensuring consistency in reporting and responses.
9. The information security team has developed a new training module to address social engineering threats. What is the most effective way to ensure employees engage with and retain the material?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Incorporating interactive scenarios and real-world examples (A) makes the training engaging and relatable, improving retention and application. Watching a recorded presentation (B) may inform employees but lacks interactivity. Distributing written materials (C) provides reference material but does not ensure engagement. Focusing on an annual event (D) limits the frequency and continuity of training. Interactive scenarios actively involve employees, enhancing their understanding and retention of social engineering threats.
10. In the context of ongoing security control evaluation, which of the following is the BEST approach to ensure that security controls remain effective against evolving threats?
Correct Answer: C. Explanation: Periodically reassessing the organization's threat landscape allows the identification of emerging threats, vulnerabilities, and changes in business operations that might require adjustments to security controls. This approach ensures that controls remain relevant and effective against current threats. Updating the risk management plan (Option A) and reviewing the incident response plan (Option B) are complementary but not sufficient to address new threats directly. Annual training (Option D) is essential for user awareness but is less effective without updating technical controls to align with the evolving threat landscape.
11. A new organizational process for customer onboarding requires collecting and storing sensitive personal data. How should the security team ensure this process aligns with the organization’s security strategy?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Conducting a DPIA (A) identifies risks associated with handling sensitive personal data and ensures that appropriate safeguards are implemented, aligning the onboarding process with the organization’s security strategy. Requiring consent forms (B) addresses compliance but does not mitigate risks. Developing separate processes (C) adds complexity without addressing overall security. Assigning responsibility to the legal department (D) neglects the need for technical and operational safeguards. DPIAs provide a structured approach to integrating security into data handling processes.
12. During an internal audit, it was found that no formal structure exists to monitor compliance with assigned security responsibilities. What should the organization prioritize to address this issue?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Implementing a compliance tracking and reporting system (A) ensures proactive monitoring of assigned responsibilities, improving accountability and adherence to security policies. Conducting frequent audits (B) identifies issues but does not establish ongoing monitoring. Assigning compliance to department managers (C) may introduce inconsistencies. Relying on incident reports (D) is reactive and may allow issues to persist undetected. A tracking system provides continuous and reliable oversight.
13. An information security manager is tasked with ensuring critical financial data is adequately protected. What should be their first step in the asset identification and classification process?
Correct Answer: B. Explanation: The first step should be to identify and document the data flows involving financial information within the organization. Understanding how financial data moves through various systems, who accesses it, and where it's stored is critical to accurately identifying and classifying these assets. A clear mapping of data flows will help reveal how data is created, processed, shared, and stored, allowing for appropriate classification and protection measures to be designed. While a BIA, engagement with business leaders, and gap analysis are valuable, they all rely on understanding the data flows first.
14. An organization contracts a third-party vendor to process data subject to privacy regulations. How can the organization ensure the vendor complies with legal and regulatory requirements?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Including compliance requirements and audit rights in the vendor contract (A) ensures the vendor is contractually obligated to meet legal and regulatory standards, enabling oversight. Limiting access through encryption (B) enhances security but does not ensure compliance. Requiring insurance (C) addresses financial risks but does not guarantee regulatory adherence. Penetration testing (D) verifies security but does not ensure compliance with legal requirements. Contractual obligations and audit rights provide enforceable measures for ensuring vendor compliance.
15. The information security team identifies that a critical system is vulnerable to distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks. What is the most effective risk treatment to manage this risk?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Deploying a DDoS protection service (A) directly addresses the identified risk by mitigating potential attacks, ensuring system availability. Regular backups (B) protect data but do not address availability during an attack. Additional authentication mechanisms (C) enhance security but do not mitigate DDoS risks. Notifying employees (D) raises awareness but does not reduce the risk. A DDoS protection service ensures resilience against such attacks.
16. An organization’s information classification policy includes "Confidential," "Internal Use," and "Public" categories. How can the security team ensure that these classifications are applied consistently across the organization?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Developing detailed guidelines (A) ensures clarity and consistency in applying classifications across the organization. Automating classification (B) enhances efficiency but does not address policy understanding. Allowing departments to define their criteria (C) risks inconsistency. Monitoring compliance through audits (D) is necessary but does not proactively ensure consistent application. Clear guidelines with examples provide employees with the understanding needed to apply classifications appropriately.
17. A global organization wants to ensure consistent integration of information security governance into corporate governance across all its regional offices. What is the most effective way to achieve this?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Developing a global information security governance framework with regional adaptations (A) ensures consistency while allowing for necessary customizations to address local regulatory and cultural differences. Centralizing governance decisions (B) risks overlooking regional nuances. Implementing the most stringent regulations globally (C) may be overly burdensome and not practical for all regions. Conducting workshops (D) fosters alignment but does not establish a formal framework. A globally adaptable framework balances consistency with regional needs.
18. An organization is drafting a contract with a third-party supplier that will process sensitive customer data. Which of the following clauses should the information security manager ensure is included to mitigate risks?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Requiring the supplier to conduct annual security audits and share the results (B) ensures transparency and provides the organization with critical insights into the supplier’s security posture. Financial penalties (A) address consequences but do not prevent risks. Compliance with the organization’s incident response policy (C) may not align with the supplier’s operations. Encryption of communications (D) is important but does not address broader security risks.
19. During an internal review, it was found that the security incident response reports lack clarity and do not provide actionable insights. What is the FIRST step an information security manager should take to improve the quality of these reports?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: A standardized report template establishes a consistent structure, ensuring all critical information is included while maintaining clarity. This template provides guidance on what should be reported and how, helping the incident response team understand expectations. Training the team (Option A) would improve skills but may not ensure consistency without a template. Executive summaries (Option C) can improve readability but are only useful if the underlying report is well-structured. Peer reviews (Option D) help refine reports but do not establish a consistent baseline without a standardized format.
20. During the development of an information security strategy, it is determined that the organization has limited resources to implement all desired initiatives. What is the MOST effective way to prioritize these initiatives?
Correct Answer: B. Prioritize initiatives that address the highest risks to the organization. Explanation: The correct answer is B. Addressing the highest risks first ensures that the organization’s limited resources are allocated to initiatives that provide the greatest protection and value. Option A (Focus on least resource-intensive initiatives) risks neglecting critical areas. Option C (Defer non-regulatory initiatives) ignores important risks that may fall outside the scope of compliance. Option D (Choose based on frameworks) provides guidance but does not account for the organization’s unique risk profile.
21. An energy company undergoing a digital transformation identifies supply chain cyber risks as part of its risk assessment. The organization relies heavily on third-party vendors for critical infrastructure components. Which action should be the FIRST priority to manage these emerging supply chain risks?
Correct Answer: C. Evaluate vendors’ cybersecurity posture through audits and assessments. Explanation: Evaluating vendors' cybersecurity posture through audits and assessments (C) provides a detailed understanding of the existing risks and informs targeted risk management actions. Mandating robust cybersecurity practices (A) is necessary but cannot be effectively implemented without first assessing the current state. Monitoring KPIs (B) is important for ongoing management but requires initial evaluation to establish benchmarks. Including supply chain risks in awareness training (D) is beneficial for general risk management but does not directly address the identified risks.
22. An organization’s cloud-based customer service system has been found vulnerable due to weak password policies. What should be the primary action to mitigate this control deficiency?
Correct Answer: C. Explanation: Increasing the minimum password length and enforcing complexity rules addresses the immediate problem of weak passwords directly. While 2FA provides an additional layer of protection, enforcing stronger passwords remains fundamental. RBAC limits data exposure but does not prevent unauthorized access. Monitoring login attempts is a good practice but does not prevent weak passwords from being used successfully.
23. A CISO needs to justify a significant increase in the cybersecurity budget to the board of directors. Which of the following is the MOST effective approach to gain approval?
Correct Answer: B. Present a business case highlighting the return on investment for security initiatives. Explanation: The correct answer is B. A business case demonstrating return on investment shows how security initiatives contribute to the organization’s goals, making the request relatable to the board’s focus on value. Option A (Emphasize regulatory fines) may create urgency but does not provide a comprehensive justification. Option C (Industry benchmarks) provides context but may not align with specific business objectives. Option D (Highlight high-profile breaches) raises awareness but does not address the organization’s unique circumstances or priorities.
24. An energy company has identified a significant cybersecurity risk associated with its Industrial Control Systems (ICS). The Chief Operations Officer (COO) is assigned ownership of this risk. What is the MOST critical aspect of the COO’s role as the risk owner?
Correct Answer: B. Ensure operational risks related to ICS are clearly defined and addressed. Explanation: The COO’s most critical role as the risk owner is to ensure operational risks related to ICS are clearly defined and addressed (B), ensuring alignment with the organization’s risk management framework. Approving budgets (A) is a supporting activity and not the core responsibility. Overseeing implementation of technical controls (C) is typically delegated to operational or technical teams. Reviewing incidents and vulnerabilities (D) supports risk monitoring but is not the primary responsibility of the risk owner.
25. A manufacturing company identifies a vulnerability in its supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system, which could be exploited to disrupt production. The organization also finds that incident logs from the SCADA system are not reviewed consistently. What should the security team prioritize FIRST to mitigate these deficiencies?
Correct Answer: D. Perform a risk assessment of the SCADA system vulnerabilities and deficiencies. Explanation: Conducting a risk assessment (D) helps the organization understand the criticality of the vulnerability and log deficiencies, allowing informed decisions about prioritizing mitigation strategies. Developing a log review process (A) is important but may not address the immediate risk posed by the vulnerability. Implementing IDS (B) provides monitoring but does not directly address the root cause. Patching the vulnerability (C) is critical but should be prioritized based on the risk assessment findings.
26. During a routine audit, it is discovered that a key vendor does not fully comply with the contractual data protection requirements. What should the organization do NEXT to mitigate this risk?
Correct Answer: B. Notify the vendor of non-compliance and request a remediation plan. Explanation: The correct answer is B. Notifying the vendor and requesting a remediation plan is the appropriate next step, as it enables the organization to address the issue collaboratively while mitigating risk. Option A (Terminate the vendor contract) may not be practical or necessary unless the non-compliance poses a critical threat. Option C (Perform an internal risk assessment) is useful but secondary to addressing the non-compliance directly with the vendor. Option D (Escalate the issue to the legal department) may be part of the process but should follow an attempt to resolve the issue with the vendor first.
27. Which of the following is the most important consideration when integrating the information security strategy into the overall enterprise strategy?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: Aligning the information security strategy with the organization's governance framework ensures that security goals are incorporated into enterprise-wide policies and processes. This integration leads to consistent implementation and enables the security strategy to be effectively managed at the corporate level. Separate strategies may cause duplication and inconsistencies, and a business impact analysis alone cannot provide comprehensive integration. Limiting integration to one department risks ignoring enterprise-wide risks and goals.
28. An information security report prepared for the board highlights a significant increase in detected security events. However, no context is provided for this increase. What additional information should be included in future reports to ensure clarity?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Correlating detected events with improved detection capabilities (A) provides context and demonstrates progress, ensuring the report is clear and actionable. Listing all events (B) may overwhelm stakeholders with unnecessary detail. Reporting SOC hours (C) focuses on operational metrics rather than strategic outcomes. Comparing events with industry peers (D) is informative but does not directly explain the increase. Providing context through correlation highlights the effectiveness of the program and ensures meaningful insights.
29. An organization has implemented new information security policies. To communicate these policies effectively to all employees, what should the information security manager prioritize?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Hosting mandatory training sessions (C) ensures employees understand the new policies, their implications, and how to comply with them, making it the most effective communication method. An email campaign (A) may raise awareness but lacks engagement. Publishing policies on the intranet (B) provides accessibility but does not ensure comprehension. Requiring acknowledgment during performance reviews (D) is too infrequent to be effective for new policy rollouts.
30. An organization has deployed new role-based access controls (RBAC) across its file-sharing services to prevent unauthorized data access. However, users frequently encounter access issues. Which of the following should the information security manager prioritize FIRST to resolve this issue?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: Reviewing role assignments is essential for verifying that users are mapped to the correct roles based on their responsibilities. Misaligned roles often cause access issues when legitimate users are denied access to resources necessary for their work. Training (Option B) is necessary for user adoption, but training alone won't resolve incorrect role assignments. Elevated permissions (Option C) undermine the RBAC system's purpose, while a helpdesk (Option D) addresses symptoms but doesn't solve root causes.
31. An organization has created a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) for its primary data center. However, during an incident, it realized that the backup data center lacked the latest updates and configurations. What action should the organization take to improve disaster recovery readiness?
Correct Answer: B. Explanation: Regularly reviewing and updating the backup data center configuration ensures that it mirrors the primary data center's most current state. This reduces the risk of data mismatches and maintains consistent functionality. Increasing replication frequency (A) or continuous monitoring (C) would not resolve configuration discrepancies. A coordinator (D) is helpful but needs current configurations to manage effectively.
32. An organization’s IT department is deploying a cloud-based collaboration platform to enhance productivity. What should the security team prioritize to align with this operational objective?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Ensuring the platform meets data security requirements (A) directly supports the operational objective by providing a secure foundation for collaboration. Limiting access (B) enhances security but may hinder productivity. Encrypting communications (C) is important but only one aspect of securing the platform. A checklist (D) is a useful guide but does not guarantee compliance or alignment. Addressing data security requirements aligns security measures with the IT department’s goals.
33. A new information security guideline for handling sensitive customer data is being introduced to an organization with strict compliance requirements. Which approach will most effectively ensure staff understand and adhere to this new guideline?
Correct Answer: C. Explanation: Providing a focused training session that emphasizes the guideline's application in daily tasks will most effectively ensure staff understand and adhere to the new guideline. This approach gives employees practical, hands-on knowledge that directly applies to their work responsibilities, improving retention and encouraging adherence. An email announcement, employee acknowledgments, and informational materials reinforce the guideline but lack the in-depth, interactive engagement that training offers, which is essential for handling sensitive data correctly.
34. An organization completed an investigation of a ransomware attack but failed to identify the vulnerabilities exploited during the incident. What should the organization prioritize to improve the quality of future investigations?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Conducting vulnerability scans as part of post-incident investigations (A) helps identify the specific weaknesses that were exploited, providing actionable insights for remediation. Focusing solely on attacker behavior (B) does not address the vulnerabilities exploited. Engaging third-party experts (C) adds expertise but does not build internal investigative capabilities. Automated tools (D) assist in analysis but do not directly identify vulnerabilities. Integrating vulnerability scanning into investigations ensures a comprehensive understanding of the exploited weaknesses.
35. After recovering from a major cybersecurity incident, the organization plans to update its incident handling process. What should the information security manager prioritize to improve future recovery efforts?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Documenting lessons learned (A) ensures that weaknesses in the current process are identified and addressed, improving future recovery efforts. Acquiring tools (B) supports response capabilities but does not directly improve processes. Conducting simulation exercises (C) builds team readiness but does not incorporate lessons from past incidents. Increasing audit frequency (D) enhances detection but does not refine the handling process. Lessons learned provide actionable insights to optimize incident handling and recovery.
36. A financial institution’s incident classification process includes categories for low, medium, and high impact. During a phishing attack, the organization failed to identify the incident as high impact because the initial classification focused only on the number of affected users. What should the institution change to improve its classification process?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Expanding classification criteria to include the type and sensitivity of data involved (A) ensures a more comprehensive assessment of incident impact, addressing the root cause of the misclassification. Redefining all phishing incidents as high impact (B) risks overclassification, leading to resource inefficiencies. Implementing a scoring system (C) can add granularity but requires clearly defined and inclusive criteria. Focusing on user education (D) reduces future risks but does not address the immediate need for accurate classification. Comprehensive classification criteria ensure incidents are categorized based on all relevant impact factors.
37. After an insider threat was eradicated, the incident response team initiated system recovery. During the recovery process, they discovered several unauthorized changes to user permissions that remained undetected. What step should the organization take to prevent such issues in future recovery efforts?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Implementing a baseline configuration verification process (A) ensures that all unauthorized changes, such as modified user permissions, are detected and corrected during recovery. Isolating systems (B) helps contain threats but does not address the detection of unauthorized changes. Automating restoration (C) risks reapplying configurations without verifying their integrity. Manual reviews (D) are prone to human error and inefficiency, particularly in complex environments. A baseline configuration check provides an automated and reliable way to ensure system integrity during recovery.
38. During the implementation of an information security strategy, a key stakeholder expressed concerns about its cost. What is the best approach to address these concerns while maintaining support for the strategy?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Demonstrating ROI through risk reduction (A) connects the cost of the strategy to tangible benefits, addressing financial concerns effectively. Reducing the scope (B) compromises the strategy’s effectiveness. Emphasizing penalties (C) may appear defensive and fail to demonstrate proactive value. Focusing solely on technical benefits (D) does not resolve financial concerns. ROI-focused communication highlights the value of the strategy in mitigating risks and supporting business goals.
39. An organization’s leadership team has decided to pursue a digital transformation initiative, incorporating AI-driven tools and IoT devices into core business operations. What should the information security team do to address this internal influence?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Assessing the security risks of AI and IoT (A) ensures that the organization identifies and mitigates new vulnerabilities introduced by these technologies, aligning the security strategy with the digital transformation initiative. Traditional controls (B) may not adequately address the unique risks of AI and IoT. Relying on vendors (C) reduces internal oversight and may leave critical gaps. Delaying assessments (D) increases the risk of vulnerabilities during implementation. Proactively addressing these risks ensures a secure transition to new technologies.
40. An information security manager wants to ensure that the organization’s firewall is effectively blocking unauthorized access attempts. Which of the following testing methods would best confirm the firewall’s effectiveness?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Performing a penetration test (C) simulating an external attacker is the most effective method to confirm the firewall’s ability to block unauthorized access attempts. Reviewing logs (A) provides insights into past events but does not actively test the firewall. External vulnerability scans (B) identify weaknesses but do not simulate real attack scenarios. Comparing configurations to best practices (D) ensures compliance but does not test actual functionality.
41. A security manager is evaluating controls to minimize the risk of data exfiltration through email. Which of the following would be the most appropriate control to implement?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution (B) is the most effective control because it provides the ability to monitor, detect, and prevent unauthorized transmission of sensitive information via email. Encrypting outbound emails (A) protects data during transmission but does not prevent exfiltration by authorized users. Using secure file transfer protocols (C) is beneficial but does not address email-specific risks. A policy prohibiting email use for sensitive data (D) relies on employee compliance and is insufficient as a technical control.
42. During a threat analysis, the security team identifies a new ransomware variant targeting the organization’s industry. What should the team prioritize to mitigate the threat?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Ensuring regular and secure backups (A) minimizes the impact of a ransomware attack by enabling data restoration without paying ransoms. Developing an incident response playbook (B) prepares the team but does not directly mitigate the threat. Conducting penetration tests (C) identifies vulnerabilities but does not prevent ransomware attacks. Monitoring traffic (D) enhances detection but does not eliminate the threat. Backups provide a reliable fallback to maintain business continuity.
43. An organization’s information security policy includes guidance on monitoring employee activities to ensure compliance. However, legal and privacy concerns have been raised about its implementation. What should the organization do to ensure the policy is both effective and compliant?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Aligning the policy with privacy laws and ensuring transparency (A) balances security monitoring with legal and ethical considerations, addressing privacy concerns effectively. Removing monitoring provisions (B) compromises compliance assurance. Focusing only on high-risk employees (C) is discriminatory and may overlook broader risks. Delegating monitoring to third parties (D) introduces additional risks and does not resolve privacy concerns. Transparent and compliant monitoring provisions ensure the policy is both effective and respectful of privacy.
44. During an active incident, internal teams express confusion over the escalation process for notifying senior management. What should the information security manager do to address this gap?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Defining and documenting a clear escalation procedure (A) ensures that all teams understand when and how to notify senior management, reducing confusion during incidents. Conducting training (B) improves general knowledge but does not address the specific gap. Automating escalation (C) supports efficiency but cannot replace a documented process. Assigning responsibility (D) provides a short-term solution but does not establish a repeatable procedure. A clear escalation process ensures consistency and efficiency.
45. An e-commerce business faces the risk of payment data breaches due to third-party payment processing vulnerabilities. To address this, the business purchases a cybersecurity insurance policy to cover potential losses. Which risk response option is being used here?
Correct Answer: B. Explanation: Transfer means shifting the risk impact to a third party, often via insurance. Here, the company buys a cybersecurity insurance policy, so if a data breach happens, the insurer will cover some or all losses. Mitigation (A) refers to reducing the risk through controls, which isn't the approach taken here. Avoidance (C) would involve eliminating the use of third-party payment processing altogether. Acceptance (D) means acknowledging the risk without action. Since insurance is purchased to handle the impact, it exemplifies the transfer approach.
46. An organization is reviewing its Business Continuity Plan (BCP) after a ransomware attack disrupted operations for several days. Which of the following changes would best align with incident management readiness?
Correct Answer: C. Explanation: Regular backups with offsite storage provide a reliable mechanism for data recovery in the event of a ransomware attack. This ensures continuity by restoring critical data without paying the ransom. A stronger password policy (A) is essential but not a guarantee against ransomware. Network segmentation (B) and endpoint detection (D) limit infection spread but are less effective if backups are unavailable.
47. A healthcare provider has identified that advanced persistent threat (APT) groups are targeting their network due to sensitive patient data. Which of the following should be prioritized to protect against APTs?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: A zero trust network architecture ensures that each device and user is authenticated and authorized before accessing any network resources, reducing the likelihood of lateral movement in the event of a compromise. Monitoring network traffic is useful for detecting ongoing attacks but not sufficient to prevent them. Encryption secures data transfers but does not prevent network infiltration. Disabling unnecessary services can help harden systems but may not be feasible for all operations and is less comprehensive.
48. An organization detected suspicious traffic from a compromised device and used a firewall to block the device's outbound connections. However, the device remained connected to the internal network, posing further risks. What additional containment measure should the organization implement to improve its response?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Quarantining the compromised device by removing it from the network (A) eliminates the risk of further internal spread while allowing the response team to analyze the device in a controlled environment. Monitoring the device (B) provides intelligence but does not mitigate the immediate risk. Blocking all traffic across the network (C) is disruptive and unnecessary. Reimaging the device (D) resolves the issue but removes evidence critical for understanding the incident. Quarantining the device ensures effective containment while preserving data for further investigation.
49. An organization plans to implement a data loss prevention (DLP) solution to protect sensitive information. To ensure effective integration with existing email systems, what should the information security manager prioritize?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Ensuring the DLP solution supports policy-based scanning (C) enables it to identify and manage sensitive information in emails effectively. Blocking all outbound emails (A) is too restrictive and impractical. Testing with a sample group (B) is helpful but secondary to proper configuration. Employee training (D) is important but does not address technical integration with email systems.
50. During an audit of the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP), it was found that the organization’s recovery procedures for its critical payment processing system are outdated and do not account for recently implemented technologies. What should the organization do to ensure incident management readiness?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Updating the DRP to include procedures for new technologies (A) ensures that recovery efforts are aligned with the current environment, which is essential for effective incident management. Assigning a dedicated team (B) is beneficial for ongoing management but does not directly resolve the issue of outdated procedures. Redesigning the DRP (C) may not be necessary unless the plan is fundamentally flawed. Quarterly audits (D) improve oversight but are not an immediate solution for addressing outdated procedures. Keeping the DRP current ensures it remains actionable and effective in a disaster scenario.
51. An organization has chosen to implement two-factor authentication (2FA) as an additional security control in their information security program. The program manager is now tasked with integrating 2FA into the existing remote access system. Which of the following is the MOST significant factor that must be considered?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: When integrating new security controls like 2FA, compatibility with existing access control systems ensures seamless integration and reduces the risk of disrupting business operations. Option B is less critical because many 2FA systems already offer logging features. Option C is important but not the most significant consideration. Option D, while crucial for adoption, is secondary to ensuring technical compatibility and integration.
52. A financial institution categorizes incidents by their severity using a standardized framework. However, during a recent high-severity incident involving unauthorized data access, the team could not determine the level of access achieved by the attacker. What should the institution prioritize to improve incident classification in future scenarios?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: A mandatory assessment of data access level helps clarify the severity of unauthorized access incidents, providing a more accurate classification. Designating a member (B) might still face uncertainty without this assessment, while automatic high-severity classification (C) could lead to overclassification. Post-incident reviews (D) are helpful but should follow criteria changes.
53. An organization is seeking a security framework that emphasizes continuous improvement and aligns with the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle. Which framework should the security manager select to meet these requirements?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: ISO/IEC 27001 (A) is based on the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle, emphasizing continuous improvement in the management of information security. This structure ensures that security processes are consistently evaluated and enhanced over time. COBIT (B) focuses on governance and management rather than continuous improvement cycles. NIST CSF (C) provides a risk management framework but does not explicitly follow the PDCA methodology. TOGAF (D) is an enterprise architecture framework and is not specifically tailored to information security.
54. An information security manager is tasked with defining metrics to measure the efficiency of the incident response team. Which metric would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: The average time taken to contain incidents (A) measures the efficiency of the response team in mitigating threats, aligning with the team’s objectives. The number of incidents detected (B) provides insight into threat activity but not team efficiency. The percentage of insider threat incidents (C) identifies a category of risk but does not measure the team’s performance. The cost of operation (D) informs budgeting but does not reflect operational efficiency. Containment time directly evaluates the team’s capability to respond effectively.
55. An organization has selected the CIS Controls to guide its security program. During the initial implementation phase, which action should the information security manager prioritize?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: Prioritizing the matching of critical security controls to the organization's identified threats ensures that the CIS Controls implementation focuses on the most significant risks. This risk-based approach allows the organization to customize the controls, providing practical security coverage for its particular environment. Evaluating existing tools, providing training, and identifying policy gaps are important steps, but they should follow the initial prioritization process to ensure that the most relevant controls are selected and aligned with key organizational threats.
56. A financial institution identifies a high risk associated with potential data breaches due to inadequate encryption of sensitive customer information. The organization decides to outsource its data encryption processes to a third-party service provider specializing in secure data management. How should this risk response be categorized?
Correct Answer: B. Risk transfer. Explanation: Outsourcing data encryption to a third-party service provider (B) represents risk transfer, as the responsibility for managing the risk is shifted to the vendor. Risk avoidance (A) would involve eliminating the activity that creates the risk, which is not the approach here. Risk mitigation (C) would involve implementing controls internally to reduce the risk, such as deploying encryption systems in-house. Risk acceptance (D) involves taking no action, which is not applicable as the organization is actively addressing the risk.
57. A healthcare organization is contracting a vendor to process patient data. To integrate information security requirements into the vendor’s activities, what should the contract include?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Requiring compliance with applicable data privacy regulations (A) ensures that the vendor adheres to legal and security standards, protecting sensitive patient data. Using the organization’s IT infrastructure (B) may improve control but is impractical for most vendors. Monthly reporting (C) enhances oversight but does not guarantee compliance. A termination clause (D) provides recourse but does not prevent incidents. Regulatory compliance ensures that the vendor aligns with the organization’s security and legal requirements.
58. An organization is preparing to classify its information assets. The security manager has identified the need to involve various stakeholders in the process. Which of the following groups is the most critical to engage during the information asset classification process to ensure business alignment?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Engaging senior management (B) is critical as they can define the organization's data sensitivity levels, prioritize business needs, and establish risk tolerance. Although IT (A) can provide technical insights, their focus is often operational, not strategic. The finance department (C) focuses on monetary valuation but may overlook non-financial critical assets. The legal department (D) ensures regulatory compliance, which is essential but does not address overall business alignment.
59. The organization has recently detected noncompliance with its internal data protection policy due to a misconfigured database. How should the information security manager present this issue to the stakeholders?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Highlighting the root cause and potential risks (A) provides stakeholders with a clear understanding of the issue and its implications. Identifying responsible employees (B) focuses on accountability but does not help in decision-making. Listing all databases (C) is operationally relevant but not appropriate for a stakeholder report. Recommending audits (D) may be a future step but does not address the immediate reporting needs. Clear reporting of cause and impact enables stakeholders to evaluate and act appropriately.
60. A post-incident review identifies that the organization’s incident response time exceeded acceptable limits due to delayed escalation. What is the most critical corrective action the information security manager should implement?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Clearly defining and documenting escalation procedures (A) ensures that delays are minimized by providing a clear, actionable process for timely escalation. Automating escalation (B) supports efficiency but relies on well-defined procedures. Increasing team size (C) adds resources but does not fix procedural gaps. Drills (D) test processes but do not address deficiencies in documentation. Clear procedures ensure faster and more efficient escalation during incidents.
61. An organization plans to standardize its information security procedures across all departments. Which of the following steps should the information security manager prioritize to ensure successful implementation?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Conducting a gap analysis (A) identifies inconsistencies and ensures the new standardized procedures address existing issues comprehensively. Mandating immediate adoption (B) may result in resistance and operational challenges. Publishing procedures without providing implementation support (C) may lead to partial compliance. Focusing only on critical departments initially (D) delays organization-wide consistency and could create security gaps.
62. A company's information security budget has been consistently underfunded despite a series of significant data breaches. What is the first step the CISO should take to secure increased funding during strategic planning?
Correct Answer: B. Explanation: Conducting a risk assessment to quantify potential losses is the critical first step in securing increased funding. This assessment provides a clear understanding of the risks facing the organization and their potential financial impact, which can be compelling evidence when negotiating for a larger budget. By quantifying potential losses, the CISO can justify why certain security investments are necessary and what value they would deliver. Engaging auditors, reallocating resources, or focusing on training may be helpful later, but these actions rely on the foundational insights obtained from the risk assessment.
63. During a regulatory audit, the auditor questions how the organization ensures incident investigations meet legal and regulatory standards. What process should the information security manager emphasize?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Regularly reviewing and updating procedures (A) ensures the organization’s processes remain aligned with changing legal and regulatory standards. Training employees (B) supports awareness but does not directly ensure compliance. Hiring external experts (C) may be helpful but is not a substitute for organizational processes. Focusing only on sensitive data incidents (D) neglects other potential compliance areas. Ongoing updates to procedures ensure consistent adherence to legal requirements.
64. While reviewing the information security program, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) notices that key initiatives are not delivering the expected outcomes. What should be the first step to address this issue?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Reassessing the alignment between the program’s initiatives and the information security strategy (A) identifies whether the initiatives are addressing the organization’s strategic objectives, ensuring their relevance and effectiveness. Increasing resources (B) without understanding the root cause may waste resources. Replacing team members (C) is premature without identifying the underlying issues. Focusing solely on regulatory compliance (D) narrows the program’s scope and overlooks strategic alignment. Realignment ensures the program’s success and strategic impact.
65. An organization is expanding its cloud service usage to include a third-party Software as a Service (SaaS) provider for critical business functions. What is the MOST important action for the information security manager to take before approving the integration?
Correct Answer: D. Explanation: Understanding and negotiating the shared responsibility model is crucial to clarify the division of security responsibilities between the organization and the SaaS provider. This ensures that each party comprehends and fulfills its role, reducing the risk of security gaps. Reviewing encryption protocols (Option A), compliance policies (Option B), and audit results (Option C) are important steps, but if responsibilities are unclear or unbalanced, these measures alone cannot prevent security incidents arising from misaligned expectations.
66. A newly appointed Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is tasked with maintaining the organization’s existing information security governance framework. During a review, the CISO notices gaps in stakeholder involvement. What should the CISO prioritize to address this issue?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Creating a cross-functional steering committee (A) ensures that governance activities are inclusive of all relevant stakeholders, improving collaboration and decision-making. Updating the framework for quarterly reporting (B) enhances monitoring but does not directly address stakeholder involvement. Securing executive sponsorship (C) is important but insufficient without broader participation. Assigning responsibilities exclusively to IT (D) limits the scope and effectiveness of the governance framework. A steering committee ensures that governance is a shared responsibility across the organization.
67. A new regulation mandates stricter data protection measures for organizations handling customer information. How should the information security manager respond to ensure risks are appropriately reassessed?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Analyzing current practices (A) identifies gaps between the organization’s existing controls and the new regulation, enabling a targeted reassessment of risk. Updating policies (B) is necessary but does not ensure risks are identified. Penetration testing (C) assesses technical vulnerabilities but does not address compliance gaps. Training employees (D) supports awareness but does not reassess risk. Comparing practices to regulatory requirements ensures a comprehensive risk reassessment.
68. An organization is evaluating the effectiveness of its updated incident response plan by conducting a live simulation of a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack. During the simulation, it becomes evident that key stakeholders are unaware of their roles in mitigating the incident. What should the organization do to rectify this issue?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Role-specific training (A) is critical to ensuring that all stakeholders understand their responsibilities during an incident. This addresses the immediate issue of unawareness and equips stakeholders to contribute effectively in future incidents. Automating processes (B) can enhance efficiency but does not eliminate the need for stakeholder involvement. Including external vendors (C) may provide expertise but does not resolve the internal lack of readiness. Establishing a crisis management team (D) is not a substitute for ensuring that existing stakeholders are adequately prepared. Training directly improves stakeholder understanding and readiness, which is essential for a coordinated response.
69. A health care organization needs to implement new access controls to restrict unauthorized access to patient records. The Compliance Officer is tasked with developing the new access control policy but does not have the authority to enforce it. Which role does this individual hold?
Correct Answer: C. Explanation: A policy owner is responsible for developing and maintaining policies that guide control implementation but may not directly enforce them. The Compliance Officer develops access control policy here but lacks the authority to enforce it. Process owners (A) handle specific business functions. Risk owners (B) identify and manage risks, while control owners (D) oversee control implementation and effectiveness. The Compliance Officer, being responsible for policy development, is a policy owner.
70. During a review of the Business Continuity Plan (BCP), an organization identifies that its data center is a single point of failure. To enhance incident management readiness, what should the organization prioritize?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Implementing a geographically distant backup data center with real-time replication (B) mitigates the risk of a single point of failure and ensures continuity of operations. This directly addresses the identified weakness in the BCP. Creating manual recovery procedures (A) may help in some scenarios but is less reliable and slower than a backup data center. Enhancing physical security controls (C) improves data center protection but does not eliminate the single point of failure. Conducting a business impact analysis (D) is valuable but does not directly resolve the identified issue. A backup data center ensures operational resilience and improves incident readiness.
71. During a malware outbreak, an organization used its endpoint detection and response (EDR) tool to isolate affected endpoints. However, response times were delayed because the team was unfamiliar with some advanced features of the tool. What should the organization do to improve the effectiveness of the EDR tool during incidents?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Conducting hands-on training sessions (A) ensures the team understands and can effectively use the advanced features of the EDR tool, which are critical during incidents like malware outbreaks. Limiting usage to basic functionality (B) reduces the tool's potential effectiveness and hinders its capability to handle complex scenarios. Implementing automated workflows (C) enhances efficiency but does not address the team's knowledge gap. Assigning a dedicated specialist (D) centralizes expertise but does not prepare the entire team. Training equips the team to maximize the tool's capabilities and respond more effectively to incidents.
72. A healthcare organization is revising its incident response plan to comply with new industry standards. During the process, it becomes evident that there is no formalized reporting process for post-incident reviews. What is the best way to incorporate this practice into the updated plan?
Correct Answer: A. Explanation: A standardized template ensures consistency in post-incident reporting, allowing teams to capture critical insights uniformly. This documentation enables continuous improvement of the IRP and compliance with industry standards. A task force (B) can be valuable but requires a consistent format to be effective. Mandating regulatory reporting (C) might be necessary, but a standardized template is still required for internal purposes. Investing in automated tools (D) can be beneficial but should complement a robust manual review process.
73. A technology company’s risk management team is responsible for generating monthly risk reports for operational managers. The latest report highlights a significant increase in phishing-related incidents. What should the team prioritize when presenting this trend to operational managers?
Correct Answer: C. The root cause of the increase in phishing-related incidents. Explanation: Focusing on the root cause (C) enables operational managers to understand the factors driving the increase and take targeted action to mitigate the issue. Reporting financial impact (A) is important but does not directly help in addressing the root cause. Evaluating training effectiveness (B) may be a part of the analysis but is not the primary focus. Comparing with industry benchmarks (D) provides context but does not address internal causes or mitigation strategies.
74. A newly appointed governance officer is tasked with ensuring that all business units adhere to the organization’s information security policies. What is the BEST strategy for the governance officer to promote adherence?
Correct Answer: B. Align responsibilities with business unit leaders for policy enforcement. Explanation: The correct answer is B. Aligning responsibilities with business unit leaders integrates policy enforcement into daily operations, fostering accountability and ensuring adherence. Option A (Regularly audit) identifies issues but does not proactively promote compliance. Option C (Use automated tools) supports monitoring but does not build accountability. Option D (Provide monetary incentives) may encourage short-term compliance but is not a sustainable or holistic approach.
75. An organization has implemented several security tools but lacks a cohesive process to integrate their outputs into actionable insights. What should the security manager prioritize to address this gap?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Developing a centralized process (A) ensures that data from multiple tools is effectively aggregated and analyzed, providing actionable insights for decision-making. Training team members (B) is important but does not address process gaps. Deploying additional tools (C) without addressing integration risks creating more silos. Conducting an inventory (D) helps identify redundancies but does not establish integration. A centralized process enhances the program’s ability to use tools effectively.
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