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CCSP Practice Exam 3
Take your exam preparation to the next level with fully simulated online practice tests designed to replicate the real exam experience. These exams feature realistic questions, timed conditions, and detailed explanations to help you assess your knowledge, identify weak areas, and build confidence before test day.
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1. A cloud service provider (CSP) wants to mitigate risks associated with third-party software components used in their infrastructure. Which of the following actions is most effective in ensuring the security and reliability of these components?
Performing a comprehensive vendor risk assessment and requiring security certifications is the most effective action in ensuring the security and reliability of third-party software components. A vendor risk assessment evaluates the security posture of the vendor, including their processes, controls, and compliance with industry standards. Requiring security certifications, such as ISO 27001 or SOC 2, ensures that the vendor follows best practices in information security. Regular vulnerability scans (A) are important but do not provide insights into the vendor's overall security posture or practices. Implementing strict access controls for software developers (B) is a good security measure but does not address third-party risks. Utilizing open-source software exclusively (D) does not guarantee security and can introduce risks if not properly vetted and maintained.
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2. An organization is using a third-party cloud service provider to store personal data. As part of the Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA), what critical aspect should be evaluated to mitigate privacy risks?
Evaluating the contractual agreements and data processing clauses (Option D) is critical in a PIA when using a third-party cloud service provider. These agreements should include specific provisions that address data protection requirements, such as the roles and responsibilities of each party, security measures, data breach notification protocols, and compliance with relevant privacy laws. While compliance with ISO/IEC 27001 standards (Option A), encryption methods (Option B), and data retention policies (Option C) are important factors, the contractual agreements provide the legal framework that ensures the service provider's obligations to protect personal data and mitigate privacy risks.
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3. A financial services company needs to ensure that its data stored in the cloud remains confidential and meets regulatory compliance requirements. Which of the following is the most effective strategy to achieve this?
Implementing client-side encryption before uploading data ensures that the data is encrypted before it leaves the organization's control, maintaining confidentiality and meeting regulatory compliance requirements. This approach allows the organization to retain control over the encryption keys and the encryption process, making it less dependent on the cloud provider's security measures. Using the cloud provider's default encryption settings (A) may not provide the desired level of control or meet specific compliance needs. Relying solely on access controls (C) does not protect data from unauthorized access if the access controls are bypassed. Storing data in a region with strict data protection laws (D) is beneficial but does not directly ensure data confidentiality.
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4. An enterprise is comparing risk profiles of two cloud service providers (CSPs). CSP A has a detailed and transparent risk management policy, whereas CSP B offers less transparency but guarantees higher uptime and performance. Which CSP should the enterprise select to ensure robust risk management?
CSP A should be selected if it can meet the required performance benchmarks because transparency in risk management is critical for understanding and aligning with the enterprise's risk management strategy. Transparent risk management policies allow the enterprise to clearly assess the controls, methodologies, and risk appetite of the CSP, ensuring they align with the enterprise's own risk tolerance and management strategies. While CSP B’s guaranteed uptime and performance (Option B) are important, they do not compensate for the lack of transparency, which can hide potential risks. Comprehensive compliance certifications (Option D) are beneficial but do not replace the need for transparency in risk management policies. Therefore, balancing transparency with performance benchmarks ensures a more secure and well-aligned partnership.
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5. A financial services company is migrating its sensitive customer data to a public cloud. To comply with regulatory requirements and ensure data security, which cloud computing activity should be prioritized to protect the data during transit and at rest?
Encrypting data both in transit and at rest is essential for protecting sensitive customer data in the cloud. Encryption ensures that even if data is intercepted during transmission or accessed without authorization, it remains unreadable and secure. While multi-factor authentication, regular updates, and firewall configurations are important security measures, they do not directly address the protection of data at all stages. Encryption provides a critical layer of security that satisfies regulatory requirements and protects data integrity and confidentiality.
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6. An organization is designing its cloud architecture to optimize data flow between different cloud services. They want to ensure efficient data transfer while maintaining high security standards. Which architecture pattern should they implement to achieve this?
A mesh architecture allows direct data flows between different cloud services, optimizing data transfer and reducing latency. In a mesh network, each node can communicate directly with other nodes, which enhances performance and fault tolerance. The hub-and-spoke pattern routes data through a central hub, which can create bottlenecks and increase latency. The star architecture connects multiple nodes to a central node, similar to hub-and-spoke, and can also lead to bottlenecks. The ring architecture connects nodes in a circular manner, which can result in longer data paths and increased latency. Therefore, a mesh architecture is the best choice for optimizing data flows while maintaining high security standards.
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7. A technology company needs to ensure that only authorized applications can communicate with the cloud management plane. Which security control is most appropriate for achieving this?
Application whitelisting is the most appropriate security control for ensuring that only authorized applications can communicate with the cloud management plane. By allowing only pre-approved applications to interact with the management plane, whitelisting prevents unauthorized or malicious applications from gaining access. Network firewalls (B) control traffic at the network level but do not specifically address application authorization. Data encryption (C) protects data but does not control application access. Intrusion detection systems (D) help detect unauthorized activities but do not prevent unauthorized applications from accessing the management plane.
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8. An e-commerce company needs to secure its API endpoints against unauthorized access and ensure proper monitoring of all API interactions. Which security components should be prioritized in the cloud architecture to achieve these goals?
An Application Programming Interface (API) gateway acts as an entry point for API requests, managing and securing API traffic. It provides features such as authentication, rate limiting, and request/response transformation. By securing API endpoints, it ensures that only authorized users can access the APIs. A Web Application Firewall (WAF) adds another layer of protection by monitoring and filtering HTTP traffic, protecting the application from various web attacks. The combination of an API gateway for secure access management and a WAF for traffic filtering and threat mitigation is essential for securing API interactions in an e-commerce platform.
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9. An enterprise is transitioning to a cloud-based infrastructure and wants to ensure secure console-based access for administrators. The access method chosen should prevent unauthorized access and ensure that all access attempts are logged for auditing purposes. Which of the following would be the most appropriate method to achieve this?
Console access through a secured jumpbox with Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and logging enabled is the most secure approach. The jumpbox acts as an intermediary, restricting direct access to the consoles and providing a layer of security. MFA adds an additional authentication factor, making it more difficult for unauthorized users to gain access. Logging all access attempts ensures that any suspicious activities can be detected and audited. Using default administrator credentials is highly insecure as they are well-known and easily exploited. Open console access to all network users lacks any form of access control, and simple password-based authentication is vulnerable to various attacks.
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10. An organization is concerned about the potential risks posed by third-party suppliers in its cloud service supply chain. According to ISO/IEC 27036, what is the most effective approach to mitigate these risks?
Conducting regular audits and assessments is a key practice recommended by ISO/IEC 27036 to manage and mitigate risks associated with third-party suppliers. Regular audits help ensure that suppliers are adhering to agreed security standards and practices, identifying potential vulnerabilities or non-compliance issues that need to be addressed. While strict contractual obligations, limiting the number of suppliers, and using certified suppliers are important, regular audits provide a practical and ongoing method to verify compliance and assess the effectiveness of security measures in place.
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11. A multinational company processes PII from customers in various countries, including the United States, Canada, and Japan. How should the company ensure compliance with the respective data protection laws in these countries?
Implementing a single global policy based on the most stringent law (Option A) might not address specific legal requirements unique to each country. Focusing solely on GDPR (Option C) neglects the specific requirements of the United States and Japan. Applying uniform security controls (Option D) fails to recognize the distinct legal obligations of each jurisdiction. Segmenting data by region and applying specific measures (Option B) ensures that the company complies with the particular requirements of each country, such as HIPAA for US data, PIPEDA for Canadian data, and Japan's Act on the Protection of Personal Information (APPI). This tailored approach is necessary to address the diverse regulatory landscapes and protect customer data appropriately.
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12. A cloud development team is implementing a new application and has integrated various third-party libraries to expedite the development process. As a CCSP, what is the most effective way to ensure the security of these third-party components?
While conducting manual code reviews (A) and relying on the reputation of third-party vendors (C) can be beneficial, they are not the most effective methods for ensuring security. Manual code reviews are time-consuming and prone to human error, and vendor reputation does not guarantee the absence of vulnerabilities. Ensuring all developers are trained in secure coding practices (D) is crucial, but it does not directly address the security of third-party components. Automated tools (B) are designed to quickly and accurately identify known vulnerabilities in third-party libraries, making them the most effective method for this scenario. These tools have databases of known vulnerabilities and can scan codebases efficiently, providing comprehensive security assessments that manual reviews might miss. Regular scanning and updating of these tools ensure that new vulnerabilities are detected as soon as they are disclosed.
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13. An organization is concerned about efficiently utilizing cloud resources while minimizing costs. Which cloud computing characteristic helps ensure they are only billed for the resources they actually use?
Measured service is a cloud computing characteristic that ensures resource usage is monitored, controlled, and reported, allowing for transparent billing based on actual consumption. This characteristic helps organizations optimize their resource utilization and minimize costs by paying only for the resources they use. Rapid elasticity (option A) enables dynamic scaling of resources but does not address billing. On-demand self-service (option B) allows users to provision resources as needed but does not focus on cost optimization. Broad network access (option D) ensures accessibility of services over the internet but does not relate to cost management.
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14. An organization needs to ensure that its cloud-based compute instances are protected from common vulnerabilities and exploits. Which of the following strategies would best enhance the security of these instances?
Regularly updating and patching the operating system is the most effective strategy to protect cloud-based compute instances from common vulnerabilities and exploits. Keeping the OS up-to-date ensures that known security vulnerabilities are addressed and mitigated. While deploying a cloud-native firewall on each instance (B) and implementing network segmentation within the cloud (C) are important security measures, they do not directly address vulnerabilities within the operating system. Using encryption for data at rest and in transit (D) protects data but does not mitigate vulnerabilities related to the compute instances' OS.
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15. A company uses tokenization to protect sensitive customer data in their cloud environment. To ensure that tokenized data is secure even if the tokens are intercepted, what additional security measure should be implemented?
Encrypting the token vault using a strong encryption algorithm ensures that even if the token vault is compromised, the sensitive original data remains protected. The tokenization mapping table should be stored separately from the tokens to prevent easy association of tokens with their original values. Using a deterministic algorithm to generate tokens can compromise security by making it easier to predict or reverse-engineer the tokens. Masking tokens before transmission does not provide the same level of security as encrypting the token vault and does not address the core requirement of protecting the mapping between tokens and original data.
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16. A cloud application frequently experiences security issues due to inadequate handling of authentication and authorization mechanisms. Which training focus would best address this common pitfall?
While multi-factor authentication (MFA) (A) and secure password storage techniques (B) are important aspects of authentication security, they do not address authorization issues. Regular security audits (C) are beneficial but do not provide ongoing preventative measures. Designing role-based access control (RBAC) and enforcing the principle of least privilege (D) ensures that users have the minimum necessary access to perform their duties, reducing the risk of privilege escalation and unauthorized access. RBAC provides a structured approach to managing permissions based on roles, making it easier to enforce security policies and minimize potential security issues related to authentication and authorization.
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17. According to SAFECode guidelines, which practice should be prioritized to ensure the secure management of third-party components in a software project?
SAFECode emphasizes the importance of conducting a security assessment of third-party components before integrating them into a software project. This practice helps identify potential vulnerabilities or malicious code within the components, ensuring that they meet the organization's security standards. Using the latest version without verification (A) can introduce unknown risks. Disabling security features (C) is highly inadvisable as it compromises the security of the software. Relying solely on vendor documentation (D) may not provide a complete understanding of the security implications, making a thorough assessment necessary.
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18. When evaluating the security of virtualized environments, one assurance challenge is the potential for inter-VM attacks. Which of the following controls is most effective in mitigating this risk?
Utilizing VM escape prevention technologies is the most effective control for mitigating the risk of inter-VM attacks. VM escape occurs when a malicious actor breaks out of one VM to access the underlying hypervisor or other VMs. Prevention technologies specifically designed to detect and prevent these types of attacks are crucial. Ensuring all VMs use the same security policies (A) does not address the specific threat of VM escape. Deploying anti-malware solutions (C) and regularly updating the hypervisor software (D) are important security practices but do not specifically target inter-VM attack prevention.
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19. A cloud service provider (CSP) aims to maintain optimal response times for its customers' applications. Which monitoring approach would best help achieve this goal?
Using synthetic monitoring involves simulating user interactions with applications and measuring response times to proactively detect performance issues. This approach helps identify bottlenecks and latency problems before they impact actual users. Synthetic monitoring can be scheduled to run at regular intervals, providing continuous insights into application performance. Relying solely on server logs may not capture all performance issues, and manual response time tests are infrequent and labor-intensive. Daily performance reports without real-time monitoring lack the immediacy needed to address issues promptly.
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20. A company is planning to adopt a multi-cloud strategy and wants to ensure seamless integration and management across various cloud platforms. Which role is primarily responsible for this function?
A Cloud Service Broker (CSB) acts as an intermediary between the cloud service customer and multiple cloud service providers. The primary responsibility of a CSB is to manage and integrate services across various cloud platforms, ensuring seamless operation and optimization. This includes tasks such as aggregating services, customizing and integrating offerings from different providers, and managing service relationships. A Cloud Service Customer (option A) consumes cloud services but does not manage integration. A Cloud Service Provider (option B) offers cloud services but does not handle multi-cloud integration for customers. A Cloud Service Partner (option D) may assist with certain tasks but typically does not have the comprehensive role of managing and integrating multiple cloud services.
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21. An organization is drafting a master service agreement (MSA) with a cloud service provider. Which of the following is the most critical aspect to ensure that changes in regulatory requirements over the term of the contract are adequately addressed?
A change management clause is crucial in an MSA to handle evolving regulatory requirements. This clause outlines the procedures for making changes to the agreement, including how changes will be communicated, approved, and implemented. This ensures that both parties can adapt to new regulations without breaching the contract. The indemnity clause, while important, primarily deals with protecting parties from legal liabilities. The termination for convenience clause allows either party to exit the contract but does not address regulatory changes. The data ownership clause pertains to data rights rather than regulatory compliance.
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22. A business is evaluating cloud service models for its new application and is particularly concerned about the level of control over security configurations. Which cloud service model provides the greatest level of control to the customer?
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the greatest level of control to the customer. In IaaS, customers have control over the operating systems, storage, deployed applications, and network configurations, allowing them to implement and manage security controls according to their specific requirements. SaaS (Option A) offers the least control, as the provider manages the entire stack. PaaS (Option B) offers more control than SaaS but less than IaaS, as the platform and underlying infrastructure are managed by the provider. Function as a Service (FaaS) (Option D) abstracts infrastructure management even further, focusing on executing code without managing servers.
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23. In the event of a data breach, a financial institution needs to delete compromised data from its cloud storage to prevent further unauthorized access. What is the most effective deletion mechanism to ensure that the data is completely removed and cannot be reconstructed?
Performing a secure wipe, which overwrites the data with random patterns multiple times, ensures that the data is completely removed and cannot be reconstructed. This method provides the highest level of assurance that the data is irrecoverable. The cloud provider's default delete operation (Option A) may not guarantee complete data destruction. Overwriting the storage space with zeroes (Option B) is less effective than using random patterns. Migrating the data to a secure on-premises location and then deleting it from the cloud (Option C) adds unnecessary complexity and does not ensure secure deletion from the cloud.
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24. In the context of an internal ISMS for a cloud environment, which of the following best describes the role of security metrics?
Security metrics are used to measure the performance of security controls within an internal ISMS. These metrics provide quantitative data that helps assess how effectively security measures are mitigating risks and protecting assets. While they can also support justifying investments (A), their primary role is to evaluate control performance. Defining policies and procedures (C) and determining regulatory compliance needs (D) are related to the development and assessment stages of an ISMS but are not the primary function of security metrics.
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25. An e-commerce company utilizes containerized applications managed by Docker and Kubernetes. To enhance security, they want to ensure that vulnerabilities within container images are identified and addressed before deployment. Which tool should they integrate into their CI/CD pipeline?
Clair is an open-source project for the static analysis of vulnerabilities in application containers (currently including appc and docker). It scans container images for known vulnerabilities and integrates well into CI/CD pipelines, allowing developers to identify and address security issues before deploying containers to production. Helm is a package manager for Kubernetes, Prometheus is a monitoring tool, and Grafana is a visualization tool for metrics. While all are valuable in a Kubernetes environment, Clair specifically addresses the need for vulnerability scanning in container images.
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26. A cloud service provider (CSP) has adopted ISO/IEC 20000-1 standards and is facing a persistent issue with network latency affecting multiple clients. The Problem Management team must gather data to analyze and resolve the problem. According to ISO/IEC 20000-1, which activity should be performed to systematically collect and analyze data for resolving the problem?
Trend Analysis is an activity recommended by ISO/IEC 20000-1 to systematically collect and analyze data to identify patterns and trends that may indicate underlying problems. This analysis helps in understanding the root causes of recurring issues, such as network latency. Incident Escalation is related to handling ongoing incidents, Service Continuity Planning focuses on ensuring service availability during major disruptions, and Capacity Management deals with ensuring sufficient resources to meet service demands. Trend Analysis is specifically aimed at identifying and addressing the root causes of persistent problems.
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27. A cloud security professional discovers that a recent update to data protection regulations requires immediate changes to data retention policies. The organization has not yet adapted to these changes. What should the professional do to ensure the organization complies promptly?
Starting the implementation immediately and notifying regulators (Option C) demonstrates proactive compliance efforts and transparency, which can be viewed favorably by regulators. Scheduling an internal meeting (Option A) may delay necessary actions. Requesting an extension (Option B) without showing immediate effort to comply may not be well received by regulators. Waiting until the next quarterly review (Option D) can lead to non-compliance and potential penalties. Proactively addressing the changes while keeping regulators informed is the most effective way to manage compliance and maintain a positive relationship with regulators.
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28. A DevOps team is responsible for managing secrets in a continuous integration/continuous deployment (CI/CD) pipeline. They need to ensure that secrets are securely injected into the pipeline without exposing them. What is the best practice for achieving this?
Using a secrets management tool to inject secrets into the CI/CD pipeline dynamically is the best practice for securely managing secrets. This approach ensures that secrets are handled securely and are not exposed in scripts or version control systems. Hardcoding secrets in scripts (A) is insecure and should be avoided. Storing secrets in version control (B) exposes them to anyone with access to the repository. Allowing developers to manually enter secrets (D) is impractical and increases the risk of human error and exposure.
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29. In the context of the PASTA methodology, which phase involves the identification and analysis of attack vectors and potential security controls to mitigate identified threats?
In the PASTA (Process for Attack Simulation and Threat Analysis) methodology, the Threat Analysis phase involves identifying and analyzing attack vectors that could be exploited by attackers. This phase also includes evaluating potential security controls to mitigate the identified threats. Defining business objectives (A) is the initial phase where the business context and objectives are established. Decomposing the application (B) involves breaking down the application into its components to understand its structure and data flows. Vulnerability detection (D) is a subsequent phase where specific vulnerabilities are identified through various testing methods.
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30. In a multi-national corporation, a forensic investigation team needs to transfer digital evidence across international borders. Which of the following steps should they take to ensure compliance with legal and regulatory requirements?
Consulting with legal counsel is essential to understand the specific legal and regulatory requirements for transferring digital evidence across international borders. Different countries have varying laws regarding data privacy, protection, and transfer, and non-compliance can lead to legal complications and jeopardize the admissibility of evidence. While encryption, courier services, and secure cloud storage are important for security, they do not address the legal aspects of cross-border data transfer.
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31. An international logistics company is implementing a data discovery solution to manage semi-structured data stored in XML files across their cloud environment. Which approach ensures the most accurate identification and classification of sensitive information in these XML files?
Using a hybrid approach that combines pattern matching and machine learning ensures the most accurate identification and classification of sensitive information in XML files. Pattern matching (such as XPath expressions, Option A) can effectively locate specific data elements but lacks the ability to understand context and adapt to new patterns. Machine learning adds a layer of intelligence, learning from data and improving accuracy over time. Manual reviews (Option C) are not scalable and prone to errors, while rule-based systems (Option D) can be rigid and miss variations in data. The hybrid approach leverages the strengths of both techniques, providing a comprehensive solution for data discovery and classification.
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32. A cloud service provider adhering to ISO/IEC 20000-1 standards has identified that their current infrastructure is underutilized, leading to inefficiencies. Which Capacity Management activity should be undertaken to improve resource utilization and address inefficiencies?
Capacity Tuning should be undertaken to improve resource utilization and address inefficiencies. This activity involves adjusting the allocation and configuration of IT resources to optimize their performance and utilization. By tuning capacity, the organization can ensure that resources are used efficiently, reducing waste and improving overall system performance. Incident Analysis focuses on understanding service disruptions, Risk Management identifies and mitigates risks, and Problem Management addresses the root causes of issues. However, improving resource utilization through capacity adjustments is achieved through Capacity Tuning.
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33. A large enterprise is involved in litigation, and the court has issued a legal hold on all relevant electronic data. The company's IT department needs to ensure that this data is preserved and cannot be altered or deleted. What is the most effective way to implement the legal hold in a cloud environment?
Using the cloud service provider's legal hold feature is the most effective way to ensure that the data is automatically preserved in its current state without alteration or deletion. This method leverages built-in functionalities designed specifically for legal hold compliance, minimizing the risk of human error and ensuring that all relevant data is protected. Manually reviewing and copying data (Option A) is labor-intensive and prone to errors. Exporting data to on-premises storage (Option C) adds complexity and does not necessarily improve compliance. Applying access controls (Option D) helps but does not guarantee that the data cannot be deleted or altered by system processes or administrators.
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34. An organization experiences a cyberattack and needs to collect forensic evidence from its cloud service provider. What must the organization ensure to comply with legal forensics requirements and preserve the evidence's integrity?
Ensuring that a certified forensic expert collects the evidence is crucial for maintaining the evidence's credibility and admissibility in legal proceedings. A certified expert has the necessary skills and knowledge to handle the evidence properly, ensuring it meets legal standards. While a detailed report on security practices (B) is useful, it does not address evidence collection. Following standard procedures (C) is important but secondary to expert handling. WORM storage (D) can help preserve evidence but is not as critical as the expertise of the person collecting the evidence.
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35. An organization receives an ISAE 3402 audit report with a restricted scope. How should the organization address the limitations imposed by the restricted scope in order to ensure comprehensive risk management?
To address the limitations imposed by the restricted scope of an ISAE 3402 audit report, the organization should request a follow-up audit for the excluded areas. This ensures that all critical controls are assessed, providing comprehensive assurance and enabling effective risk management. Implementing additional internal controls (B) can mitigate some risks, but it does not provide the same level of independent assurance as an audit. Extending the audit period (C) does not necessarily address scope limitations related to specific controls. Relying solely on the service provider’s certification (D) without additional audit verification could leave gaps in risk management.
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36. A company is deploying a cloud environment and needs to install guest OS virtualization toolsets to ensure optimal performance and management. Which of the following actions is most critical to ensure seamless integration of the virtualization toolsets with the guest operating system?
Ensuring the virtualization toolset is compatible with the hypervisor version is crucial for seamless integration and optimal performance. Incompatibility can lead to installation failures, suboptimal performance, and potential security vulnerabilities. Disabling firewall settings (B) might expose the system to security risks and is not a necessary step for toolset integration. Allocating additional virtual memory (C) without ensuring compatibility does not address the primary concern of integration. Setting up automated backups (D) is a good practice but does not directly impact the compatibility and performance of the virtualization toolset. Therefore, verifying compatibility with the hypervisor is the most critical action.
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37. A cloud service provider offers a multi-tenant environment where multiple organizations share the same infrastructure. As a cloud security professional, you are responsible for ensuring that your organization's data remains secure throughout its lifecycle. Which of the following actions best ensures data security during the "Use" phase of the cloud secure data lifecycle?
During the "Use" phase of the cloud secure data lifecycle, data is actively being accessed and manipulated. To ensure data security during this phase, it is crucial to implement strict access controls and monitor user activity. This involves ensuring that only authorized users can access the data and that their activities are tracked to detect any unauthorized access or misuse. Encryption of data (Option B) is more relevant to the "Store" and "Transfer" phases, while regular backups (Option C) are part of the "Backup" phase, and secure deletion (Option D) pertains to the "Destroy" phase.
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38. A company is deploying a critical application on multiple virtual machines (VMs) in a cloud environment. To ensure high availability of the guest operating system (OS), which strategy should the company implement?
Distributing VMs across multiple availability zones with automated failover ensures high availability of the guest OS. If one availability zone experiences an outage, the VMs in other zones can continue to operate, minimizing downtime. Automated failover ensures that workloads are quickly transferred to healthy instances without manual intervention. Deploying VMs in a single availability zone increases the risk of a single point of failure. Snapshots and backups on a single VM are essential for data recovery but do not provide immediate failover. Auto-scaling based on CPU usage helps with performance but does not address availability across different zones.
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39. To enhance the environmental efficiency of a data center, the design includes the use of economizers. Which type of economizer should be prioritized in regions with cool climates to maximize energy savings?
Air-side economizers should be prioritized in regions with cool climates to maximize energy savings. Air-side economizers use cool outside air to reduce the need for mechanical cooling, significantly lowering energy consumption. This approach is particularly effective in cool climates where outside air can be used for most of the year. Water-side economizers (Option B) also provide energy savings but are generally more suitable for moderate climates. Hybrid economizers (Option C) offer flexibility but may not maximize efficiency as well as air-side economizers in cool climates. Chemical economizers (Option D) are not commonly used in data center HVAC designs and do not provide the same level of efficiency.
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40. An enterprise is utilizing multiple third-party software solutions for its cloud operations. To manage these effectively and ensure compliance, what strategy should the organization adopt?
Using a dedicated team to oversee third-party software compliance ensures a consistent and centralized approach to managing software licenses and compliance across the organization. This team can standardize processes, ensure all licensing terms are met, and manage compliance risks effectively. Decentralizing software management (A) can lead to inconsistencies and increased risk of non-compliance. Allowing each team to negotiate their own licenses (C) can result in varied terms and lack of centralized oversight. A pay-as-you-go licensing model (D) might be suitable for some software but does not address the need for centralized management and compliance oversight.
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41. A cloud administrator is setting up a backup and restore strategy for virtual machines (VMs) running critical applications. To ensure minimal downtime and data loss, which approach should be used?
Continuous Data Protection (CDP) provides real-time or near-real-time backups of the guest OS, ensuring minimal data loss by continuously capturing changes. Regular snapshots of the host OS allow for quick recovery of the entire system state. This approach minimizes downtime and data loss by maintaining up-to-date backups for both host and guest OS environments. Nightly full backups and weekly incremental backups may not be sufficient for critical applications requiring more frequent backups. Manual backups before major updates are not a comprehensive strategy. Using only host-level snapshots without guest OS backups overlooks the critical application data and configurations within the guest OS.
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42. A cloud service provider needs to secure the access to sensitive data stored in their cloud infrastructure. They plan to use secrets management to handle API keys and passwords. Which of the following features is most critical for a secure secrets management solution?
Providing audit logs for all access and changes to secrets is critical for a secure secrets management solution. Audit logs enable organizations to monitor and track the usage and modification of secrets, helping to detect and respond to unauthorized access or suspicious activities. Storing secrets in plaintext, even in a secure database, is not recommended because it exposes the secrets to potential leaks. Hard-coding secrets in application code is a poor security practice that makes secrets difficult to manage and rotate. While using symmetric encryption to encrypt secrets is important, it must be combined with comprehensive auditing to ensure effective secrets management.
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43. A development team has released a new version of their cloud-based application. They need to confirm that the application meets its performance benchmarks and scales appropriately under peak loads. Which testing technique should be prioritized to achieve this goal?
Stress Testing is designed to evaluate the application’s performance under extreme conditions, typically by simulating peak loads and pushing the application beyond its normal operational capacity. This helps identify the breaking point of the system and how it behaves under high stress, which is essential for ensuring that the application can handle unexpected surges in traffic. Unlike other testing methods, stress testing focuses specifically on the robustness and scalability of the application, making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
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44. A cloud services provider has implemented a new data classification policy for its storage solutions. The policy categorizes data into four levels: Public, Internal, Confidential, and Restricted. As a CCSP, you are tasked with integrating these classifications into the provider's encryption strategy. Which of the following best ensures that Restricted data is properly secured according to the classification policy?
For the highest classification level, Restricted data, ensuring maximum control and security is crucial. Client-side encryption with user-managed keys means that the data is encrypted before it leaves the client’s environment and the keys are solely managed by the data owner. This approach minimizes the risk of unauthorized access by the cloud service provider or third parties. AES-128 encryption, while strong, is less secure than AES-256, and encryption at rest alone may not be sufficient without proper key management practices. Server-side encryption managed by the provider may not meet the strict security requirements for Restricted data, as it places trust in the provider’s management and control. Key rotation, while important, does not address the necessity for user-managed encryption and control over keys.
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45. A global e-commerce company wants to provide its customers with the ability to sign in using their existing accounts from various social media platforms. To achieve this, they plan to integrate with several identity providers (IdPs) such as Google, Facebook, and Twitter. Which of the following is the primary benefit of using social identity providers for this purpose?
The primary benefit of using social identity providers (IdPs) is to allow users to sign in using their existing accounts from platforms like Google, Facebook, and Twitter, thereby avoiding the need to create and remember new login credentials. This enhances user experience and can lead to higher user engagement and retention. Reducing development time for custom authentication mechanisms (A) can be a benefit but is not the primary one. Ensuring the company maintains control over all user authentication processes (C) is not applicable, as using social IdPs inherently involves delegating some control to these external providers. Providing a unified login experience only within the company's internal applications (D) is not relevant, as the focus is on external, customer-facing authentication.
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46. To ensure the robustness of a cloud-based application, the security team decides to simulate a scenario where an attacker attempts to exploit the application by sending excessively large payloads to crash the system. What type of abuse case testing are they performing?
Buffer Overflow Testing involves sending input data that exceeds the buffer capacity to see if the system can handle it without crashing or exhibiting unexpected behavior. This type of abuse case testing is crucial for identifying vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers to cause the application to fail or to execute arbitrary code. By simulating such abuse scenarios, the security team ensures that the application has proper bounds checking and memory management to prevent buffer overflow attacks.
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47. Encryption (Option A) ensures data security but does not address the legal basis for data transfers under GDPR. Obtaining explicit consent (Option B) can be challenging and impractical for large datasets. The Privacy Shield Framework (Option D) is no longer deemed adequate by the EU. Standard Contractual Clauses (Option C) provide a legally binding mechanism for data transfers, ensuring that data protection measures meet GDPR standards. SCCs offer robust protection for personal data transferred from the EU to third countries, ensuring compliance with GDPR requirements.
While encryption (Option B) is crucial, it does not address data localization requirements. A global policy (Option C) might not sufficiently address specific regional requirements. Regular audits (Option D) are important but do not fully ensure compliance with data localization mandates. Storing EU customer data exclusively within the EU and Chinese customer data within China (Option A) directly addresses the data localization requirements of GDPR and China's Cybersecurity Law. This approach ensures that the institution complies with the stringent data residency rules imposed by both regulations, mitigating the risk of non-compliance and potential legal repercussions.
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48. A cloud service provider needs to design a disaster recovery solution for its clients with varying recovery service level agreements (SLAs). Which of the following approaches will allow the provider to offer differentiated RTO and RPO options to its clients?
Utilizing tiered storage solutions with different replication and backup frequencies allows the cloud service provider to offer differentiated RTO and RPO options to its clients. This approach involves categorizing data and applications based on their criticality and assigning appropriate storage tiers that vary in terms of performance, replication, and backup schedules. For example, critical applications can be assigned to high-performance storage with continuous replication and frequent backups to achieve low RTO and RPO. Less critical data can be assigned to lower-cost storage with less frequent backups, suitable for higher RTO and RPO. This flexible, tiered approach enables the provider to meet diverse client requirements while optimizing resources and costs. Implementing a single backup schedule, enforcing uniform RPO and RTO values, or relying on manual recovery procedures would not accommodate the varying needs of different clients.
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49. A cloud service provider (CSP) is required to adhere to various organizational policies to ensure data security and compliance. Which of the following is the most critical policy to establish for maintaining data integrity and confidentiality in a multi-tenant cloud environment?
In a multi-tenant cloud environment, a data encryption policy is critical for maintaining data integrity and confidentiality. Encryption ensures that data is protected both at rest and in transit, preventing unauthorized access and ensuring that even if data is intercepted or accessed without authorization, it remains unreadable. This is especially important in a multi-tenant environment where multiple customers' data resides on shared infrastructure. While data retention (A), incident response (C), and user access policies (D) are important, encryption is fundamental to protecting the core security attributes of data integrity and confidentiality.
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50. In a cloud environment, a financial services company needs to monitor and log user activities for compliance purposes. Which of the following attributes should be included in the logs to provide comprehensive traceability of user actions?
For comprehensive traceability of user actions, logs should include the user identity, the specific action performed, and the time the action occurred (option A). These attributes allow security teams to reconstruct events, understand the sequence of actions, and identify responsible individuals. While attributes like IP address (B), user role (C), and network protocol (D) can provide additional context, they are secondary to the core elements needed for tracing user activities directly and effectively.
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51. During the installation of a cloud management tool, a company needs to ensure that the tool can effectively track resource usage and generate detailed reports. Which configuration setting is most critical to achieve this objective?
Configuring detailed billing and cost management is most critical for effectively tracking resource usage and generating detailed reports. This configuration provides insights into how resources are being utilized and the associated costs, which is essential for financial management and optimization of the cloud infrastructure. Enabling user activity tracking (A) helps monitor user actions but does not directly track resource usage. Setting up automated backup schedules (C) is crucial for data protection but unrelated to resource usage tracking. Integrating with third-party security tools (D) enhances security but does not address the need for detailed resource usage reports. Therefore, configuring billing and cost management is key to achieving comprehensive tracking and reporting.
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52. An e-commerce company uses a cloud service provider to manage its international customer base. During the evaluation of legal risks, what should be the primary focus to mitigate potential legal issues related to cross-border data transfer?
Adherence to international data protection agreements like the EU-US Privacy Shield ensures that cross-border data transfers comply with legal requirements and protect customer privacy. This is crucial to mitigate legal risks associated with data transfer between jurisdictions with different data protection laws. Internal security policies (A), network latency (C), and disaster recovery capabilities (D) are important but secondary to ensuring legal compliance with cross-border data transfers.
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53. A development team is setting up a cloud environment for testing their application, which involves frequent instance provisioning and deletion. What type of storage should they use for their temporary data to minimize costs?
Ephemeral storage is the most cost-effective solution for temporary data that does not need to persist beyond the life of the instance. It is automatically deleted when the instance is terminated, reducing storage costs and management overhead. This makes it highly suitable for development and testing environments where instances and their associated data are frequently created and destroyed. Persistent disk storage and long-term storage are more expensive options designed for data that needs to be retained, while object storage is better suited for managing large volumes of unstructured data over longer periods.
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54. An organization is conducting an audit of its data handling practices in the cloud. During the audit, they need to ensure that outdated and no longer needed data is properly disposed of to prevent unauthorized access. Which phase of the cloud data lifecycle does this activity fall under?
The "Destroy" phase of the cloud data lifecycle involves the secure and complete removal of data that is no longer needed. This is essential to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information that could be left on discarded storage media. The "Create" phase is related to the generation or modification of data, the "Use" phase involves accessing and processing data, and the "Archive" phase is concerned with long-term storage of data that is not actively used but needs to be retained for compliance or other reasons. Proper data destruction methods, such as secure erasure or physical destruction of storage media, are critical to maintaining data security and compliance.
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55. During the design of a new data center, the security architect needs to consider tenant partitioning. What is the primary benefit of implementing logical partitioning in a multi-tenant data center environment?
The correct answer is B. Logical partitioning ensures that each tenant's data and operations are securely isolated from others, which is crucial in a multi-tenant environment. This helps prevent unauthorized access to data and ensures compliance with privacy regulations. Option A is incorrect because physical security controls are still necessary. Option C, while beneficial, is not the primary purpose of logical partitioning. Option D pertains to physical security rather than the logical isolation provided by partitioning.
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56. A company following ISO/IEC 20000-1 standards is planning a large-scale deployment of a new cloud application. To ensure the deployment process is efficient and minimizes downtime, which step should be prioritized to manage dependencies and sequence deployment tasks effectively?
Deployment Planning is critical in ISO/IEC 20000-1 standards to manage dependencies and sequence deployment tasks effectively. This step involves creating a detailed plan that outlines the tasks, timelines, resources, and dependencies required for the deployment. Proper planning ensures that all aspects of the deployment are coordinated and that potential issues are identified and mitigated beforehand. Incident Management deals with service disruptions, Configuration Management maintains IT asset integrity, and Problem Management focuses on identifying and resolving root causes of incidents. However, effective deployment management relies heavily on comprehensive Deployment Planning.
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57. A government agency needs to select a cloud service provider (CSP) whose cryptographic modules meet rigorous security standards. Which certification should the agency prioritize to ensure the CSP's cryptographic modules are compliant?
FIPS 140-2 is a U.S. government standard that specifies the security requirements for cryptographic modules. It is widely recognized and used to ensure that cryptographic modules (both hardware and software) meet rigorous security standards. This certification is critical for any government agency or organization that needs to ensure the security of cryptographic modules. While ISO/IEC 27001 and ISO/IEC 27701 address broader information security and privacy management systems, and Common Criteria (CC) provides a framework for evaluating the security features of IT products, FIPS 140-2 is specifically focused on cryptographic modules, making it the most relevant certification for this scenario.
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58. A cloud service provider must implement mechanisms to ensure non-repudiation of data events in their service offerings. Which of the following methods best achieves this goal?
Digital signatures (option A) provide a cryptographic means to ensure that data events are non-repudiable, meaning that the originator of the event cannot deny their involvement. By signing data transactions and storing these signatures with the event logs, the provider ensures that each event is verifiable and attributable to a specific entity. MFA (B) enhances access security but does not provide non-repudiation. Encrypting data (C) ensures confidentiality but does not verify the origin of data events. Rotating encryption keys (D) improves security but does not impact the non-repudiation of events.
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59. A company is adopting a DevSecOps approach to enhance security in its software development lifecycle. Which practice best aligns with the principles of DevSecOps?
DevSecOps emphasizes the integration of security practices throughout the entire software development lifecycle, including continuous integration and continuous deployment (CI/CD) pipelines. This ensures that security is considered at every stage, from development to deployment, allowing for early detection and mitigation of security issues. Conducting a security review only at the end (Option A) is contrary to DevSecOps principles. Isolating the security team (Option C) undermines the collaborative nature of DevSecOps. Using separate CI/CD pipelines (Option D) can lead to misalignment and delays in identifying security issues.
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60. An organization is moving its data and applications to a public cloud. As part of their risk mitigation strategy, the security team is evaluating encryption options to protect sensitive data. Which of the following is the most effective approach to ensure data confidentiality both at rest and in transit?
Implementing end-to-end encryption, including client-side encryption and transport layer security (TLS), is the most effective approach to ensure data confidentiality both at rest and in transit. Client-side encryption ensures that data is encrypted before it leaves the client’s environment and remains encrypted until it is decrypted by the recipient. TLS ensures that data is protected while in transit. Relying solely on server-side encryption provided by the cloud provider (A) may not cover all potential vulnerabilities, and the provider's default settings (C) might not meet specific security requirements. Application-level encryption (D) is important but does not address data in transit.
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61. A government agency needs to implement encryption for their cloud-based document management system. They must ensure that the encryption keys used are compliant with FIPS 140-2 standards. Which cloud key management solution should they select to meet this requirement?
Azure Key Vault with HSM-backed keys provides a cloud-based key management solution that complies with FIPS 140-2 standards. HSM-backed keys are generated and stored in Hardware Security Modules (HSMs) that meet stringent security requirements, ensuring the highest level of protection for cryptographic keys. Azure Key Vault allows customers to manage their own keys and provides integration with various Azure services, facilitating secure key management and usage. This solution ensures compliance with regulatory standards and provides robust security for encryption keys used in the cloud-based document management system.
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62. An organization wants to evaluate the efficiency of its incident response process in a cloud environment. Which metric would provide the most insight into the speed and effectiveness of the response?
Incident Response Time (IRT) measures the time taken to respond to and mitigate a security incident after it has been detected. This metric provides direct insight into the efficiency and effectiveness of the organization's incident response process. The shorter the IRT, the more efficient the response process, minimizing potential damage. Number of Incidents Reported (Option A) indicates the frequency of incidents but not the response efficiency. Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) (Option B) measures detection speed, not response. Number of Incidents Escalated (Option D) shows how many incidents require higher-level intervention, which may indicate severity but not response efficiency.
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63. A healthcare provider is moving patient records from one cloud storage service to another and needs to ensure that the records are completely removed from the original service. They require a method that not only deletes the data but also verifies its irretrievability. What is the most appropriate method to accomplish this?
Overwriting involves writing new data over the existing data multiple times, making the original data irrecoverable. This method is effective for ensuring that sensitive patient records are completely removed from the original cloud storage service. Simply deleting files using the cloud provider's interface may not guarantee that the data is irretrievable, as it often just removes references to the data rather than the data itself. Data archiving involves storing data in a different location and does not ensure deletion. Data masking obfuscates data but does not remove it. Overwriting is a proven method for securely sanitizing data, particularly in environments where data verification is required.
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64. During the requirements gathering phase of the Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), a stakeholder emphasizes the necessity of high availability for the new cloud service application. What is the most appropriate step for a cloud security professional to take to align with this business requirement?
To meet the business requirement of high availability, developing and integrating a load balancing strategy across multiple data centers is essential. Load balancing distributes traffic across various servers or data centers, ensuring that no single point of failure can disrupt the service. This approach enhances the system's resilience and uptime, directly aligning with the stakeholder's need for high availability. While performing risk assessments, creating user roles, and implementing logging are important security measures, they do not specifically address the requirement for high availability as effectively as load balancing does.
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65. An organization is developing a risk management program for its cloud infrastructure. Which of the following frameworks provides a comprehensive approach to identifying, assessing, and managing risks specifically tailored for information security?
ISO/IEC 27005 provides guidelines for information security risk management within the context of an information security management system (ISMS). It is specifically designed to identify, assess, and manage information security risks, making it highly relevant for organizations looking to secure their cloud infrastructure. The framework integrates with the broader ISO/IEC 27001 standard, helping organizations systematically address security risks. COBIT (Option A) is focused on governance and management of enterprise IT. NIST SP 800-53 (Option B) provides a catalog of security and privacy controls for federal information systems, but it is not as specifically tailored to risk management as ISO/IEC 27005. ITIL (Option D) is a set of practices for IT service management (ITSM) and does not focus specifically on risk management for information security.
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66. A multinational company is utilizing cloud services from providers located in various legal jurisdictions. Which of the following best addresses the risk of non-compliance due to varying data protection laws?
Establishing clear data handling policies that meet the strictest applicable regulations is the best way to address the risk of non-compliance due to varying data protection laws. This approach ensures that the organization consistently meets or exceeds all legal requirements, minimizing the risk of non-compliance. Centralizing data (A) can simplify compliance but may not be feasible or desirable. Regularly auditing providers (B) and using providers with global compliance certifications (C) are important steps, but they must be complemented by robust internal policies to ensure comprehensive compliance.
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67. A global corporation is faced with a legal dispute requiring eDiscovery of data stored in multiple cloud environments across different jurisdictions. What initial step should the corporation take to ensure compliance with ISO/IEC 27050 guidelines?
Consulting with legal counsel is crucial to understanding the specific eDiscovery requirements and legal implications in each jurisdiction. ISO/IEC 27050 provides guidance on eDiscovery, but local laws may have unique requirements that need to be addressed. Collecting all data (A) without considering local laws can lead to legal violations. Suspending services (C) may not be practical and could disrupt business operations. Relying solely on the cloud service provider (D) without legal oversight may result in non-compliance with legal requirements.
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68. A financial institution wants to implement a single sign-on (SSO) solution for its employees to access various internal and cloud-based applications. They have strict security requirements due to the sensitivity of financial data. Which of the following features is most critical for their SSO solution?
Support for multifactor authentication (MFA) is the most critical feature for an SSO solution in a financial institution, given the sensitivity of financial data. MFA adds an additional layer of security by requiring users to provide two or more verification factors, significantly reducing the risk of unauthorized access. While the ability to generate custom user reports (B) and integration with social media login options (C) may be beneficial features, they do not directly address the heightened security needs. Provision for anonymous access to certain applications (D) would be contrary to the security requirements of a financial institution.
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69. In a cloud environment, a forensic investigator needs to ensure the secure transfer of digital evidence from a remote data center to the main investigation lab. Which method should be used to preserve the integrity and confidentiality of the evidence during transfer?
Using a secure courier service with tamper-evident packaging (B) ensures the physical security and integrity of the evidence during transfer. This method helps prevent unauthorized access and provides clear indicators if tampering occurs. Secure FTP (A) is not sufficient for physical evidence. Transferring via email (C) is not secure enough for sensitive digital evidence and may violate confidentiality policies. While secure cloud storage (D) is useful for remote access, it is not appropriate for transferring physical evidence.
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70. During a review of their IT infrastructure, an organization adhering to ITIL best practices finds that their Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is outdated and incomplete. To improve the accuracy and reliability of the CMDB, which process should be prioritized?
Configuration Status Accounting should be prioritized to improve the accuracy and reliability of the Configuration Management Database (CMDB). This process involves recording and reporting the status of configuration items (CIs) and ensuring that the CMDB reflects the current state of the IT infrastructure. It includes tracking changes, updates, and the current status of each CI. Change Management controls the lifecycle of changes, Incident Management handles service disruptions, and Service Level Management maintains agreed service levels. However, ensuring the CMDB is accurate and up-to-date is specifically achieved through Configuration Status Accounting.
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71. An organization uses a combination of IDS, IPS, and network security groups to protect its cloud infrastructure. The SOC detects an attempted SQL injection attack on the web application. Which of the following responses best demonstrates the application of layered security controls to mitigate this threat?
Implementing web application firewalls (WAF) to inspect and block SQL injection attempts demonstrates the application of layered security controls. A WAF provides specialized protection for web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic, effectively mitigating SQL injection attacks. While blocking the source IP, configuring the IPS, and using the IDS are important, a WAF specifically addresses the vulnerability being exploited, providing a more targeted and effective defense.
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72. An enterprise needs to conduct regular assessments to identify vulnerabilities within its cloud network infrastructure and prioritize remediation efforts. Which of the following tools or practices would be most effective for this purpose?
Conducting vulnerability assessments involves systematically scanning and analyzing the cloud network infrastructure to identify security weaknesses and vulnerabilities. These assessments provide a detailed report of potential risks, enabling the enterprise to prioritize and address them effectively. Honeypots are primarily used to detect and study attack patterns, not for identifying vulnerabilities within a legitimate network. Bastion hosts provide secure access for administrators but do not identify vulnerabilities. Network security groups control access to resources but do not conduct vulnerability assessments.
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73. A cloud security professional needs to ensure that their organization's applications can seamlessly interact with different cloud environments. Which strategy best addresses the requirement for interoperability?
Using open standards and protocols for application interfaces ensures interoperability by enabling applications to communicate and operate across different cloud environments without being tied to specific vendors. Open standards provide a common framework that different systems can understand, facilitating seamless interaction. Microservices architecture (Option A) improves modularity and scalability but does not inherently address interoperability. Encrypting data (Option B) is critical for security but does not impact application compatibility. Implementing platform-specific SDKs (Option C) can lead to increased complexity and dependency on individual cloud providers, contrary to the goal of interoperability.
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74. To enhance the security posture of their cloud infrastructure, a company wants to implement a security model where every access request is thoroughly verified, regardless of the requestor’s location within or outside the network perimeter. Which security approach aligns with this objective?
Zero Trust Network is the security approach that aligns with the objective of thoroughly verifying every access request, regardless of the requestor’s location within or outside the network perimeter. This model assumes that no part of the network is inherently secure and continuously verifies user identities, device compliance, and contextual data for each access request. Geofencing restricts access based on geographic boundaries but does not verify all access requests. An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) detects and alerts on suspicious activities but does not enforce continuous access verification. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides secure communication channels but does not inherently include comprehensive verification of every access request as Zero Trust Network does.
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75. A government agency collaborates with multiple similar agencies to share data and resources securely. The agencies need to maintain control over their data while benefiting from shared infrastructure and services. Which cloud deployment model best suits this scenario?
A community cloud deployment model is best suited for a government agency collaborating with multiple similar agencies to share data and resources securely. Community cloud allows multiple organizations with shared concerns, such as security, compliance, and policy requirements, to benefit from a shared infrastructure. This model provides the control and security needed for sensitive government data while leveraging the benefits of shared resources. Public cloud lacks the specific security and control required, private cloud is not designed for shared use among multiple organizations, and hybrid cloud does not inherently support the collaborative aspects of a community cloud.
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76. An organization uses a cloud-based business continuity (BC) plan to ensure critical applications remain available during a disaster. Which of the following best describes a key component that should be included in the BC plan?
A key component of a business continuity plan is having pre-defined failover procedures for critical applications. These procedures ensure that, in the event of a disaster, there is a clear and immediate path to transferring operations to a secondary site or system, minimizing downtime. Incident response procedures for data breaches (Option A) are important but are part of security incident response plans. A comprehensive inventory of IT assets (Option B) is useful for planning but not specific to ensuring continuity. Regular employee training (Option C) is crucial but does not directly address failover procedures.
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77. A cloud security professional is in the process of negotiating a Service Level Agreement (SLA) with a cloud service provider. The provider offers a standard SLA that includes 99.9% uptime but does not cover security incident response times. How should the professional address this gap to ensure the organization's security requirements are met?
In managing communication with vendors, it is crucial to ensure that SLAs address all critical aspects of service delivery, including security. Accepting the standard SLA (Option A) might meet uptime requirements but leaves the organization vulnerable during security incidents. Developing an internal incident response plan (Option C) does not hold the provider accountable and may lead to inconsistent response times. Selecting a different provider (Option D) addresses uptime but not necessarily the security incident response. Therefore, requesting a customized SLA that includes specific security incident response times ensures the organization’s security requirements are explicitly covered in the agreement, making the provider accountable for timely responses during incidents.
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78. A cloud service provider aims to improve the efficiency and reliability of its infrastructure maintenance tasks. Which of the following management plane practices should be adopted?
Automated maintenance workflows with predefined policies improve efficiency and reliability by standardizing and automating maintenance tasks. This approach ensures that updates, patches, and other maintenance activities are performed consistently and without human intervention, reducing the risk of errors and downtime. Manual updates and patches are less efficient and more error-prone. Sporadic maintenance without a fixed schedule can lead to unpredictable system performance and increased downtime. Relying solely on user reports to identify maintenance needs is reactive and may result in prolonged periods of degraded service.
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79. A cloud security team is performing a vulnerability assessment on a multi-tenant environment. Which of the following measures is essential to ensure that the assessment does not impact other tenants?
Using tenant-specific credentials ensures that the vulnerability assessment is scoped correctly to each tenant's environment, avoiding any impact on other tenants. This approach maintains the integrity and security of the multi-tenant environment while conducting the assessment. Conducting assessments during off-peak hours and notifying tenants are good practices but do not specifically prevent cross-tenant impact. Isolating each tenant's environment might not be feasible and could cause unnecessary complexity.
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80. During a control analysis as part of a gap analysis process, you discover that your cloud service provider’s access controls are less stringent than your organization’s baseline requirements. What is the most effective way to address this discrepancy?
Working with the cloud service provider to enhance their access controls ensures that both parties maintain a security posture that meets your organization’s baseline requirements. This collaborative approach helps align the provider’s controls with your needs without disrupting services. Terminating the contract immediately (A) may be premature and disruptive. Ignoring the discrepancy (C) overlooks potential risks, and while implementing additional compensating controls (D) can be part of the solution, it is more effective to address the root cause by ensuring the provider’s controls are adequate.
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81. A multinational company operates a Security Operations Center (SOC) responsible for monitoring and responding to security incidents in real-time. Which of the following practices is essential for ensuring the SOC can effectively handle incidents across different time zones?
Implementing a follow-the-sun model ensures continuous 24/7 coverage by rotating responsibilities between SOCs located in different time zones. This approach allows for seamless incident monitoring and response at any time of day, improving the SOC's ability to manage incidents globally. A single centralized SOC may struggle with time zone differences, and automating all procedures or limiting incident handling to business hours would leave gaps in coverage, increasing the risk of delayed responses.
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82. An organization wants to ensure that its IRM system can revoke user certificates efficiently when an employee leaves the company. Which component of the IRM system is responsible for this function?
The Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for issuing and revoking digital certificates in an IRM system. When an employee leaves the company, the CA can revoke their certificates, effectively terminating their access to protected documents. The CA maintains the Certificate Revocation List (CRL) and ensures that revoked certificates are no longer trusted by the system. The Policy Decision Point (PDP) makes access decisions based on policies, the Registration Authority (RA) assists in the certificate issuance process, and the Key Management Service (KMS) handles encryption keys, but none of these directly manage certificate revocation.
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83. A cloud-based application is being developed using a DevOps approach. To ensure secure coding practices are followed, the team decides to implement continuous security testing. At which phase should this testing be integrated to be most effective?
In a DevOps approach, integrating continuous security testing during the coding phase is crucial for early detection and remediation of security vulnerabilities. This practice, often referred to as "shift-left" testing, ensures that security is embedded into the development process from the outset. By identifying and addressing security issues early in the coding phase, the team can prevent vulnerabilities from propagating through later stages, reducing the cost and effort of remediation. While security considerations should also be included in design, testing, and deployment phases, continuous security testing during coding is most effective for early intervention.
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84. During a routine security assessment, a cloud security professional identifies that a customer has not applied critical security updates to their virtual machines. What is the most appropriate action to take to address this issue?
Informing the customer of the importance of security updates and offering assistance (Option B) ensures they understand the critical nature of the updates and receive the necessary support to implement them. Shutting down the virtual machines immediately (Option A) could disrupt the customer's operations and damage the relationship. Applying updates without informing the customer (Option C) violates trust and may lead to complications if the updates cause issues. Ignoring the issue (Option D) leaves the environment vulnerable. Communicating the importance and providing support ensures that the updates are applied promptly and correctly, maintaining both security and customer trust.
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85. An organization needs to ensure that all audit logs are retained for a specific period to meet compliance requirements. Which of the following strategies should be implemented to achieve this goal effectively?
The correct answer is C. Implementing a log management solution with configurable retention policies ensures that logs are retained for the required period and automatically managed according to compliance requirements. Storing logs on local servers and manually archiving them (Option A) is labor-intensive and error-prone. Using the cloud provider’s default log retention settings (Option B) may not meet specific compliance requirements. Relying on individual application configurations for log retention (Option D) can lead to inconsistencies and gaps in log data retention.
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86. A cloud security professional needs to communicate the findings of a recent security assessment to the executive board. The findings include several critical vulnerabilities that require immediate action. How should the professional present this information to ensure the executive board understands the urgency and approves the necessary measures?
Presenting a detailed technical report (Option B) may overwhelm the executive board and obscure the urgency of the issues. Focusing solely on reputational damage (Option C) might not cover all business impacts and necessary actions. Highlighting cost savings (Option D) is important but should be part of a broader context. Providing a high-level summary (Option A) ensures that the executive board understands the critical vulnerabilities and their potential impact on the business, making the urgency clear. This approach helps secure the board’s approval for necessary measures by connecting security risks to business outcomes, facilitating informed decision-making.
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87. A development team is integrating secure coding practices from the OWASP Application Security Verification Standard (ASVS) into their SDLC. Which practice should be prioritized to prevent Injection vulnerabilities?
Injection vulnerabilities, such as SQL injection, occur when untrusted data is sent to an interpreter as part of a command or query. To prevent injection attacks, it is critical to utilize input validation techniques to ensure that only properly formatted data is accepted. Additionally, using parameterized queries and prepared statements helps prevent attackers from manipulating queries. Implementing secure session management (B) and storing passwords using strong encryption (C) are important for other aspects of security but do not specifically address injection vulnerabilities. Applying strict rate limiting on APIs (D) helps prevent abuse and denial-of-service attacks but does not mitigate injection risks.
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88. A cloud service provider (CSP) experiences a data breach, and the incident response team is tasked with preserving evidence for a potential legal investigation. What is the best practice for ensuring the integrity of the digital evidence?
Hashing all collected evidence is essential for verifying the integrity of the data. Hash values act as digital fingerprints, ensuring that the evidence has not been altered since it was collected. While creating incident reports, taking snapshots, and storing evidence securely are important practices, they do not provide the same level of assurance regarding the integrity of the evidence as hashing does.
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89. A financial institution is deciding whether to buy an existing data center or build a new one. What is the primary advantage of building a new data center from a physical security perspective?
Building a new data center allows the organization to design and incorporate the latest security technologies and standards from the ground up, ensuring that all physical security measures meet current best practices and compliance requirements. This includes advanced surveillance, access control systems, and physical barriers. Lower initial capital expenditure (Option A) is generally associated with buying an existing data center, not building one. Faster deployment and operational readiness (Option C) also typically apply to purchasing existing facilities. Established infrastructure and connectivity (Option D) are advantages of an existing data center but do not provide the same level of customization and security as building a new one.
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90. A cloud service provider is tasked with ensuring that structured data stored by its clients is accurately discovered and classified to meet various compliance requirements. Which of the following features should the provider prioritize in its data discovery solution to best support its clients' compliance needs?
For a cloud service provider to support its clients' compliance needs effectively, the data discovery solution must prioritize extensive support for compliance reporting. This feature ensures that the tool can generate detailed reports that align with various regulatory requirements, providing evidence of compliance efforts and facilitating audits. While advanced search capabilities (Option B), integration with other cloud services (Option C), and detailed data visualization (Option D) are valuable features, they do not directly address the critical need for compliance documentation. Compliance reporting capabilities ensure that the provider can demonstrate adherence to regulations and help clients meet their compliance obligations, making it a top priority in the data discovery solution.
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91. To mitigate the risk of vendor lock-in, a company is considering various options. Which of the following best ensures the ability to switch vendors without significant data loss or service interruption?
Ensuring data portability and interoperability standards is critical to mitigating the risk of vendor lock-in. Data portability allows the company to transfer data smoothly between different cloud service providers, while interoperability standards ensure that systems can work together without compatibility issues. This approach minimizes the risk of data loss and service interruption during a vendor switch. Negotiating flexible SLAs, conducting financial assessments, and including confidentiality clauses, while important, do not address the technical challenges and requirements for seamless data transfer and system integration like data portability and interoperability standards do.
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92. A multinational organization is undergoing an external audit to ensure compliance with various international regulations. How should the cloud security professional adapt the audit process to meet the specific requirements of different jurisdictions?
Customizing audit controls based on local regulatory requirements is essential for ensuring compliance across different jurisdictions. Each region may have specific legal and regulatory requirements that must be met, and a one-size-fits-all approach is insufficient. By tailoring audit controls to meet these local requirements, the organization can ensure that it is fully compliant with all relevant regulations, thereby avoiding legal penalties and enhancing its reputation. Implementing a unified audit framework (A) may overlook local nuances, relying on the cloud service provider’s compliance certifications (C) does not guarantee the organization’s own compliance, and conducting audits exclusively in the headquarters' region (D) ignores the need for local regulatory adherence.
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93. A cloud service provider adhering to ITIL best practices is experiencing frequent downtime due to hardware failures. To improve service availability, which Availability Management process should be implemented to ensure redundancy and failover capabilities?
Fault Tolerance and Redundancy Planning should be implemented to improve service availability in the face of hardware failures. This process involves designing and deploying redundant systems and failover mechanisms to ensure that services remain available even if primary components fail. By ensuring that there are backup systems in place, the organization can minimize downtime and maintain continuous service availability. Capacity Management ensures adequate resources, Configuration Management maintains IT asset integrity, and Incident Management handles service disruptions. However, specific planning for fault tolerance and redundancy is key to achieving high availability.
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94. A cybersecurity firm is evaluating the security of a cloud application by examining its executable code while it is running. This approach involves testing the application dynamically in a live environment to uncover security vulnerabilities. Which testing methodology are they using?
Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is a security testing methodology that analyzes the executable code of an application while it is running. DAST tools simulate attacks on the application to identify vulnerabilities that could be exploited in a live environment. This type of testing does not require access to the source code and focuses on the application’s responses to various inputs, examining the functionality and security from an external perspective. DAST is effective for uncovering issues such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other runtime vulnerabilities.
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95. An organization wants to ensure that only authorized users can access its cloud resources while also minimizing administrative overhead. Which approach to identity and access management should they implement?
The correct answer is A. Role-based access control (RBAC) with automated provisioning simplifies the management of user permissions by assigning roles based on job functions and automating the process of granting and revoking access, thereby reducing administrative overhead. Mandatory access control (MAC) (Option B) is highly secure but can be complex and time-consuming to manage manually. Discretionary access control (DAC) (Option C) gives users control over their own resources, which can lead to inconsistent security practices. Attribute-based access control (ABAC) (Option D) is flexible but without automated provisioning, it can become cumbersome to manage.
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96. A DevOps team is using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) to provision and manage cloud resources. They need to ensure that all infrastructure changes are tested before deployment. Which of the following practices should they implement?
Using a staging environment to test infrastructure changes is a best practice that ensures changes are validated before being applied to the production environment. This practice helps identify and fix potential issues, reducing the risk of disruptions and ensuring stability. Directly applying changes to production without testing can lead to outages and errors. Allowing changes without reviews increases the risk of introducing defects. Disabling automated testing compromises the reliability and quality of the deployment process.
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97. During a security audit, it was discovered that an organization’s encryption keys were not being rotated regularly, posing a significant risk. To address this issue, the organization decides to implement an automated key rotation policy. Which of the following strategies should they adopt?
Using a cloud provider’s managed key rotation service with automatic rotation intervals is the most effective strategy for ensuring regular and secure key rotation. Cloud providers typically offer managed key services that include automated rotation, reducing the risk of human error and ensuring that keys are rotated according to best practices and compliance requirements. This approach also integrates seamlessly with other cloud services, ensuring that encryption keys are consistently and securely managed across the environment. Manual rotation, whether documented or managed by custom scripts, is prone to errors and inconsistencies, potentially leading to security gaps. Client-side encryption with manual key rotation relies heavily on the application team, increasing the risk of oversight and delays in key rotation.
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98. An enterprise is utilizing cloud infrastructure to support its global operations. The company needs to ensure low-latency access to its applications for users distributed across different geographic regions. Which infrastructure capability type is most effective in achieving this objective?
Multi-region deployment is the most effective infrastructure capability type for ensuring low-latency access to applications for users distributed across different geographic regions. By deploying applications and data across multiple geographic regions, the company can reduce the physical distance between users and the data centers, thereby minimizing latency and improving performance. Single sign-on (SSO) enhances user authentication, virtual machine snapshots are used for backup and recovery, and data encryption at rest ensures data security. However, none of these directly address the need for low-latency access, which is achieved through strategic multi-region deployment.
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99. A financial services firm must classify and map its customer transaction data, which is categorized as Highly Sensitive. The firm uses multiple cloud providers. Which data mapping strategy is most effective for ensuring the security and compliance of Highly Sensitive data across different cloud environments?
A multi-cloud management platform with integrated data classification and mapping allows the firm to consistently apply and enforce security and compliance policies across all cloud environments. This ensures that Highly Sensitive data is properly classified, mapped, and protected regardless of the cloud provider. Centralizing data storage in a private cloud may not leverage the benefits of multiple cloud providers and could lead to inefficiencies. A data lake could help consolidate data but might not ensure consistent security policies across different environments. Regular compliance audits are important but do not provide real-time, continuous management and enforcement of data classification and mapping.
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100. A financial institution needs to share customer transaction data with a third-party analytics company. To comply with privacy regulations, they must ensure that sensitive customer information is protected while maintaining the usability of the data for analysis. Which of the following techniques should they implement?
Data masking is the process of obscuring specific data within a database to protect sensitive information while keeping the data usable for analysis. By masking sensitive fields such as customer identifiers and transaction amounts, the financial institution can ensure that privacy regulations are met without compromising the usability of the data for the third-party analytics company. Full encryption would make the data unusable for analysis. Tokenization, while useful for protecting sensitive information, often changes the format and structure of the data, which may not be suitable for all analytical purposes. Aggregation removes detailed transaction information, which may not meet the analytical requirements of the third party.
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101. An organization has deployed a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) to monitor and control access to its cloud services. They want to ensure that only authorized users can access specific cloud resources based on their roles within the organization. Which CASB capability is essential to meet this requirement?
Access control policies are essential for ensuring that only authorized users can access specific cloud resources based on their roles within the organization. These policies can enforce role-based access control (RBAC), allowing administrators to define and manage access permissions. Threat protection (A) helps identify and mitigate security threats but does not control access. Identity management (B) is crucial for managing user identities and authentication but does not enforce access policies. Encryption management (D) protects data but does not control who can access specific resources.
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102. A cloud service provider (CSP) experiences a security breach affecting customer data. Under regulatory transparency requirements, what is the CSP's primary obligation to its customers if the breach involves personal data covered by GDPR?
Under GDPR, the data processor (in this case, the CSP) must inform the data controller (the entity that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data) of the breach without undue delay after becoming aware of it. This prompt notification allows the data controller to fulfill its obligation to notify the relevant supervisory authority and, if necessary, the affected data subjects within the required time frame (typically 72 hours). The responsibility to notify customers and the public lies with the data controller, not the data processor. Therefore, the primary obligation of the CSP is to ensure timely communication with the data controller.
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103. A company uses cloud services to store sensitive financial data. They want to protect their data against interception during transmission over the internet. Which common threat are they primarily aiming to mitigate?
The company is primarily aiming to mitigate the threat of a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack. In this type of attack, an adversary intercepts and potentially alters the communication between two parties without their knowledge. To protect sensitive financial data during transmission over the internet, the company should use encryption protocols like TLS (Transport Layer Security) to secure the data, ensuring it cannot be read or modified by attackers. Insider threats involve malicious activities by authorized individuals within the organization, which is a different concern. Credential stuffing involves using stolen credentials to gain unauthorized access and is not directly related to data interception during transmission. Social engineering involves manipulating individuals into divulging confidential information, which does not align with the scenario of data interception.
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104. During the deployment of an Information Rights Management (IRM) system, an organization wants to ensure that access to documents is dynamically adjusted based on the context, such as the user's location, device, and time of access. Which IRM feature best supports this requirement?
Real-time policy evaluation allows IRM systems to assess the context of each access request dynamically and enforce policies accordingly. This feature ensures that access to documents can be granted or denied based on factors such as the user's current location, the device they are using, and the time of access. This level of contextual awareness is critical for maintaining security while allowing legitimate access under appropriate conditions. Static encryption keys, persistent document tagging, and watermarking are important for IRM, but they do not provide the dynamic and contextual control offered by real-time policy evaluation.
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105. A financial institution is implementing machine learning models to detect fraudulent transactions in real-time. The institution is concerned about the security and privacy of the data being processed by these models. Which related technology should the institution consider to enhance the security of its machine learning workflows?
Confidential computing is a technology that enhances the security of data being processed by machine learning models. It ensures that data remains encrypted even while it is being processed, providing an additional layer of security and privacy. This is achieved through the use of hardware-based Trusted Execution Environments (TEEs) that isolate sensitive data and computations from the rest of the system. Blockchain is useful for ensuring data integrity and traceability, containers facilitate the deployment and scaling of applications, and edge computing reduces latency by processing data closer to where it is generated. However, confidential computing directly addresses the concern of securing data during processing, making it the most suitable choice for the financial institution's needs.
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106. A financial institution uses cloud services for processing transactions. They need to ensure that data is securely encrypted during transit to prevent eavesdropping and man-in-the-middle attacks. Which of the following protocols should they implement?
TLS (Transport Layer Security) is the protocol designed to secure data in transit by providing encryption, data integrity, and authentication between communicating applications. It is widely used for securing web traffic (HTTPS) and other types of network communications. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) and Telnet are both unencrypted protocols, making them susceptible to eavesdropping and man-in-the-middle attacks. HTTP is the unencrypted version of the web protocol, and while it is commonly used, it does not provide the security features needed to protect data during transit.
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107. When planning a cloud security audit, why is it important to involve the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)?
Involving the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) in a cloud security audit is important because the CISO can provide valuable insights into the organization’s security posture and strategy. The CISO is responsible for the overall information security program and can ensure that the audit focuses on critical areas, aligns with security objectives, and addresses strategic priorities. Allocating the budget (A), handling employee relations (C), and negotiating contracts (D) are important tasks but fall outside the primary responsibilities and expertise of the CISO in the context of an audit.
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108. A cloud security engineer needs to ensure that all Linux servers in their environment are compliant with the organization's security baseline. Which of the following tools can be used to automate compliance monitoring and remediation?
Tripwire Enterprise is a comprehensive tool for monitoring and ensuring compliance with security baselines. It automates the process of detecting changes to system configurations, files, and settings, and can trigger alerts and remediation actions when deviations from the baseline are detected. Allowing unrestricted root access undermines security by granting excessive privileges. Using default configurations without modification often leaves systems vulnerable, as defaults may not align with security best practices. Disabling security features to improve performance sacrifices security and increases the risk of compromise. Tripwire Enterprise helps maintain the desired security posture by continuously monitoring and enforcing compliance.
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109. A tech company is evaluating several cloud service providers. They want to ensure that the physical security of the data centers aligns with their security requirements. Which audit standard is most relevant for assessing the physical security controls of these data centers?
SOC 2 Type II is the most relevant audit standard for assessing the physical security controls of data centers. It provides a detailed evaluation of a service provider's controls over a specified period, focusing on the effectiveness and implementation of security practices, including physical security. ISO/IEC 27001 (A) is a broad information security standard but does not specifically emphasize physical security controls in detail. ISO/IEC 27017 (C) focuses on cloud security, but not as specifically on physical controls. NIST SP 800-53 (D) provides guidelines for federal information systems but is not an audit standard specifically used for evaluating service providers' physical security controls like SOC 2 Type II.
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110. A cloud-based financial services company is conducting a risk analysis for its new multi-cloud environment. The security team must ensure that all identified risks are thoroughly evaluated. Which of the following methods should the team use to quantify the potential impact of identified risks?
The risk probability and impact matrix is a tool used to quantify the potential impact of identified risks by assessing both their likelihood and consequences. This method helps prioritize risks by providing a clear visualization of which risks have the highest probability and impact, enabling the organization to allocate resources effectively for risk mitigation. Scenario analysis and historical data review (A) and the Delphi method (B) can support risk identification and qualitative assessment but do not directly quantify risks. SWOT analysis (C) is a strategic planning tool and not specifically designed for risk quantification.
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