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CCSP Practice Exam 2
Take your exam preparation to the next level with fully simulated online practice tests designed to replicate the real exam experience. These exams feature realistic questions, timed conditions, and detailed explanations to help you assess your knowledge, identify weak areas, and build confidence before test day.
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1. When managing a distributed IT model, what is the primary challenge related to maintaining data privacy and security across different legal jurisdictions?
The primary challenge in maintaining data privacy and security across different legal jurisdictions in a distributed IT model is navigating conflicting international data protection laws. Different countries have varying and sometimes conflicting regulations regarding data privacy, transfer, and protection, making it complex to ensure compliance across all jurisdictions. Ensuring high availability and uptime (A), standardizing IT infrastructure (B), and managing data transfer costs (D) are operational challenges but do not specifically address the legal complexities of data privacy and security.
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2. An organization adhering to ITIL best practices needs to deploy a critical security patch to its cloud infrastructure. To ensure that the deployment does not inadvertently impact other services, which process should be utilized to assess and mitigate potential risks?
Change Management in ITIL best practices is responsible for assessing and mitigating potential risks associated with changes, including deployments. This process involves evaluating the impact, risk, and resources required for the change, and obtaining necessary approvals before implementation. Change Management ensures that the deployment of the security patch does not negatively affect other services. Release Management handles the broader coordination of releases, Service Validation and Testing ensure the changes meet quality standards, and Problem Management addresses root causes of incidents. However, risk assessment and mitigation for deployments are specifically managed by Change Management.
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3. During a post-implementation review, a financial institution following ITIL guidelines discovers that the root cause of a recurring database performance issue was not properly documented. Which ITIL stage is responsible for ensuring that all information regarding the root cause of problems is accurately recorded and maintained?
Problem Management in ITIL is responsible for ensuring that all information regarding the root causes of problems is accurately recorded and maintained. This includes documenting the problem details, the analysis performed, the root cause identified, and the corrective actions taken. Proper documentation helps in knowledge sharing and preventing future occurrences. Service Desk Management handles user communications, Change Management oversees the implementation of changes, and Configuration Management maintains information about IT assets. Problem Management ensures comprehensive documentation of problem-related information.
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4. An organization following ISO/IEC 20000-1 standards needs to ensure that their cloud services can quickly recover from disruptions to maintain high availability. Which process should be implemented to define and document recovery procedures?
Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is essential for defining and documenting recovery procedures to maintain high availability of cloud services. BCP involves creating strategies and plans to ensure that critical business functions can continue or quickly resume after a disruption. This includes defining recovery procedures, roles and responsibilities, and communication plans. Incident Management handles service disruptions, Change Management controls changes, and Service Level Management maintains agreed service levels. However, BCP specifically focuses on ensuring that recovery procedures are in place to maintain service availability during and after disruptions.
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5. A healthcare organization is deploying a cloud-based application using a microservices architecture. They need to implement an effective strategy for logging and monitoring across all microservices to detect and respond to security incidents promptly. What is the most appropriate solution?
A centralized logging system with distributed tracing is essential for effectively monitoring and managing a microservices architecture. Centralized logging aggregates logs from all microservices into a single system, making it easier to analyze and correlate events across services. Distributed tracing adds visibility into the flow of requests through the microservices, helping to pinpoint the source of issues and understand the impact on the overall system. This approach is particularly important in a healthcare environment, where timely detection and response to security incidents are critical. Individual logging mechanisms, relying solely on the cloud provider's native service, or using local logs within each container do not provide the comprehensive visibility needed for effective monitoring and incident response.
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6. An organization is undergoing a security audit and needs to ensure that its cloud provider is compliant with relevant regulatory standards. Which role is responsible for providing the necessary compliance documentation?
The Cloud Service Provider (CSP) is responsible for maintaining compliance with regulatory standards and providing the necessary documentation to prove this compliance. This includes certifications, audit reports, and compliance statements that demonstrate adherence to regulations such as GDPR, HIPAA, or SOC 2. The Cloud Service Customer (option A) must ensure that their use of the cloud services complies with applicable regulations but does not produce the compliance documentation for the underlying cloud infrastructure. A Cloud Service Broker (option C) facilitates the use of multiple cloud services but is not responsible for regulatory compliance documentation. A Regulator (option D) enforces compliance but does not provide documentation; they review and audit the compliance provided by the CSP.
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7. An organization is planning to onboard a new vendor to provide critical cloud services. To ensure a secure supply chain, which due diligence activity should be prioritized before finalizing the contract?
Conducting a security audit of the vendor's infrastructure is a critical due diligence activity that should be prioritized before finalizing the contract. A security audit provides an in-depth assessment of the vendor's security controls, practices, and compliance with industry standards. It helps identify potential vulnerabilities and weaknesses that could impact the organization's security posture. Reviewing the vendor's SLA (A) is important for understanding service expectations but does not address security. Assessing the vendor's financial stability (B) ensures the vendor's business viability but does not directly impact security. Analyzing the vendor's incident response capabilities (D) is essential but should be part of a broader security audit.
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8. An organization is developing a cloud-based application to handle sensitive customer data. During the Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), what key practice should be implemented to mitigate the risk of data exposure during the development phase?
Static Application Security Testing (SAST) is a key practice during the development phase to identify and mitigate security vulnerabilities within the source code before the application is deployed. SAST tools analyze the application’s source code or binary without executing the program to identify potential security flaws, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and buffer overflows. This approach allows developers to detect and fix vulnerabilities early in the SDLC, reducing the risk of data exposure when the application is moved to the cloud environment. Relying on third-party providers (B) does not address internal code vulnerabilities. Storing sensitive data in plaintext (C) is a security risk. Implementing feature toggles (D) is useful for managing releases but does not address data exposure risks.
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9. A multinational company needs to ensure that its data flows comply with various data protection regulations when transferring data between different regions. Which strategy should the company implement to manage data flow compliance effectively?
Data localization involves storing and processing data within specific geographic boundaries to comply with local data protection regulations. By implementing data localization, the company ensures that data flows between different regions adhere to regulatory requirements, such as GDPR in the European Union or CCPA in California. Data masking obscures sensitive data but does not address geographic compliance. Data aggregation combines data from different sources, which may complicate compliance if not managed properly. Data fragmentation breaks data into smaller pieces but does not inherently ensure regulatory compliance. Therefore, data localization is the most effective strategy for managing data flow compliance across different regions.
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10. During a cloud migration project, an organization realizes that its data is heavily reliant on a specific cloud provider's proprietary storage format. What is the most effective approach to enhance data portability in this scenario?
Converting data to open, standardized formats before migration enhances portability by ensuring that data can be easily moved and understood by different cloud providers. Standardized formats reduce the risk of data being tied to proprietary technologies that may not be supported by other providers. Increasing bandwidth (Option B) may speed up data transfer but does not address format compatibility. Encrypting data (Option C) protects data security but does not affect portability. Data replication (Option D) improves availability and redundancy but does not solve the issue of format dependency.
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11. An enterprise is designing a new data center to ensure continuous operations even in the event of a power failure. Which design feature is most critical to achieving power resilience?
On-site backup generators with automatic transfer switches are most critical for power resilience in a data center. These generators provide reliable backup power during an outage, and the automatic transfer switches ensure a seamless transition from the main power supply to the backup generators, minimizing downtime. Dual power supplies for each server (Option A) and redundant PDUs (Option B) are important but do not ensure continued operation during extended power outages. High-capacity batteries (Option D) can provide short-term power but are not sufficient for prolonged outages, making backup generators a more comprehensive solution.
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12. A company’s SOC has identified a sophisticated malware attack affecting multiple systems. What is the most effective initial step the SOC should take to contain the attack and prevent further spread?
The most effective initial step in containing a sophisticated malware attack is to immediately disconnect all affected systems from the network. This action prevents the malware from spreading to other systems and allows the SOC to assess and mitigate the impact more effectively. Analyzing the malware, notifying employees, and updating antivirus signatures are important steps, but they should follow containment to ensure the malware does not cause further damage.
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13. A financial services company needs to adopt a cloud solution that provides pre-built applications to manage its customer relationships, sales, and support functions. Which cloud service category should the company choose to minimize the need for in-house development and maintenance?
Software as a Service (SaaS) provides fully functional, pre-built applications that are delivered over the internet. These applications are maintained and updated by the service provider, allowing the financial services company to focus on using the software rather than developing and maintaining it. SaaS solutions for customer relationship management (CRM), sales, and support functions are readily available and can be quickly deployed with minimal upfront investment. In contrast, IaaS offers basic infrastructure resources, PaaS provides a platform for developing applications, and FaaS offers event-driven computing. These other service models require more in-house development and maintenance compared to SaaS.
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14. A retail company employs artificial intelligence (AI) to enhance its security monitoring capabilities. The AI system identifies a potential brute force attack on user accounts. How should the SOC leverage the AI system to prevent further attempts and protect user accounts?
Integrating the AI system with multi-factor authentication (MFA) mechanisms enhances security by adding an extra layer of verification, making it significantly harder for attackers to compromise user accounts even if they manage to guess passwords. This integration leverages the strengths of AI in detecting suspicious activity while providing robust defense through MFA. Automatically locking out accounts and increasing password complexity are useful but less effective in isolation compared to the added security provided by MFA. Disabling AI-based alerts would undermine the benefits of advanced monitoring and is not advisable.
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15. A cloud service provider (CSP) suspects a data breach has occurred in one of its client’s environments. The client’s security team is tasked with collecting forensic data to identify the source and impact of the breach. Which of the following is the most critical first step they should take to ensure the integrity of the forensic data?
The first and most critical step in forensic data collection is to isolate the affected systems from the network. This prevents further contamination of evidence and stops the breach from spreading. While taking snapshots and analyzing log files are important, they should only be done after the affected systems are isolated to preserve the integrity of the forensic data. Notifying law enforcement is also important but typically follows the containment procedures.
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16. A cloud-based application experiences a significant slowdown due to an overwhelming number of requests from multiple sources. The traffic appears to be legitimate at first glance. What type of threat is this application most likely facing?
The application is most likely facing a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack. In a DDoS attack, multiple compromised systems are used to flood a target with traffic, overwhelming its resources and causing significant slowdowns or outages. The traffic appears legitimate but is part of a coordinated effort to disrupt the service. SQL Injection involves inserting malicious SQL queries into input fields to manipulate the database and does not cause traffic-related slowdowns. Phishing is a social engineering attack aimed at tricking individuals into providing sensitive information and does not involve overwhelming traffic. Privilege escalation refers to exploiting vulnerabilities to gain higher access levels within a system and is unrelated to the described scenario.
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17. A financial institution is using cloud services to store sensitive customer data. In the event of litigation, what should be the institution's primary concern regarding eDiscovery to comply with the CSA Guidance?
Ensuring the integrity and chain of custody of the data is critical to maintaining the authenticity and reliability of the data during eDiscovery. The CSA Guidance emphasizes the importance of data integrity and proper documentation of the chain of custody to comply with legal and regulatory requirements. Minimizing cost (B) and reducing data (C) are secondary concerns that should not compromise legal compliance. Delegating all responsibilities to the provider (D) without oversight can lead to issues with data handling and legal compliance.
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18. A healthcare organization needs to ensure that semi-structured data, such as patient records stored in HL7 format, is properly discovered and classified in their cloud storage. Which strategy is most effective for identifying and protecting sensitive health information?
Utilizing a data discovery tool with native support for HL7 standards is the most effective strategy for identifying and protecting sensitive health information within semi-structured data. Native support ensures that the tool can accurately interpret the structure and semantics of HL7 messages, facilitating precise identification and classification of sensitive health information. Custom scripts (Option A) require significant development and maintenance effort, while manual audits (Option C) are time-consuming and error-prone. Regular expressions (Option D) can miss context and variations in the data. Therefore, a tool designed to understand HL7 standards provides the best solution for this healthcare organization.
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19. A global organization is responsible for managing a large number of cloud-based servers. To ensure these servers remain secure, the organization has implemented a patch management process. What is the most effective way to minimize the risk of introducing vulnerabilities during the patching process?
Testing patches in a staging environment before deployment ensures that any potential issues are identified and resolved before patches are applied to production systems. This approach minimizes the risk of introducing vulnerabilities or causing disruptions in the production environment. Applying patches immediately without testing can lead to unforeseen issues and vulnerabilities. Patching during business hours without proper testing may cause downtime and affect productivity. Allowing users to decide when to apply patches can lead to inconsistent patch levels and increased security risks.
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20. A financial institution is in the process of defining business requirements for a new cloud-based trading platform. One of the critical requirements is to ensure the integrity and non-repudiation of transaction records. As a cloud security professional, which action should be prioritized in the SDLC process to satisfy this requirement?
Blockchain technology is designed to ensure the integrity and non-repudiation of transaction records through its immutable and transparent ledger system. Each transaction is cryptographically linked to the previous one, making it tamper-evident and ensuring that records cannot be altered retroactively. This directly addresses the business requirement of maintaining the integrity and non-repudiation of financial transactions. While multi-factor authentication, data backup, and security audits are important security practices, they do not specifically address the need for immutable and non-repudiable transaction records as effectively as blockchain technology does.
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21. In a multi-tenant cloud environment, an organization needs to ensure that its cryptographic keys are securely isolated from other tenants. What is the best approach to achieve this isolation?
Deploying dedicated HSMs (Hardware Security Modules) is the best approach to ensure cryptographic key isolation in a multi-tenant cloud environment. HSMs provide a high level of security by physically and logically isolating keys, preventing access from other tenants or unauthorized users. A shared key management system with access controls, while providing some level of security, does not offer the same degree of isolation and tamper resistance as dedicated HSMs. Key rotation policies are important for key management but do not address the issue of isolation between tenants. Software-based encryption, while useful, does not provide the same level of physical security and isolation as hardware-based solutions like HSMs.
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22. An organization is required to share healthcare data with researchers. To protect patient privacy, the data must be anonymized. Which technique best ensures that the anonymized data cannot be traced back to individual patients?
Generalization and suppression are effective techniques for anonymizing data. Generalization involves reducing the precision of data fields (e.g., replacing exact ages with age ranges), while suppression involves removing specific attributes altogether. This approach helps to ensure that individual patients cannot be re-identified from the dataset. Pseudonymization, while useful, can be reversible if the keys are compromised. Full encryption would prevent the data from being usable for research. Hashing of patient identifiers may still leave the data vulnerable to re-identification attacks if the hash values can be linked to external data sources.
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23. An organization is required to map its data flows as part of a regulatory compliance audit. The organization's data is classified into several categories, including Sensitive and Confidential. What is the best approach to ensure that the data mapping process accurately reflects the classification policy?
A comprehensive data inventory that includes classification details ensures that the organization has a clear and accurate understanding of where data resides and how it moves across the network. This inventory forms the basis for effective data mapping and ensures that all data flows are correctly aligned with the classification policy. While DLP tools can help identify data flows, they are more focused on preventing data breaches and may not provide a full mapping. Network monitoring tools track data flows but may not include detailed classification information. Enforcing endpoint security policies is important for controlling access but does not provide a complete view of data flows and classifications across the organization.
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24. An organization needs to ensure the availability of its guest operating systems during planned maintenance activities. Which feature should be utilized to minimize disruption to running applications?
Live migration allows the movement of a running VM from one physical host to another with minimal disruption to running applications. This feature is crucial during planned maintenance activities, as it ensures the continuity of operations without downtime. Cold backup involves shutting down the VM, which causes downtime. Static resource allocation does not address VM mobility during maintenance. Manual VM shutdown and restart result in application downtime and should be avoided when continuous availability is required.
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25. A company is evaluating its cloud-based disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. The IT team needs to ensure that data is not only recoverable but also consistent and accurate post-disaster. Which practice is most crucial to achieve this objective?
To ensure that data is consistent and accurate post-disaster, it is crucial to conduct regular integrity checks on backup data. These checks verify that the backups are complete, uncorrupted, and can be restored properly. Real-time replication (Option A) helps with data availability but does not guarantee data integrity. Encryption (Option B) secures data but does not address consistency or accuracy. Relying on a single cloud provider (Option D) can pose risks if that provider experiences a failure; it does not enhance data integrity.
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26. A global e-commerce company is migrating its data to a cloud service provider and must perform a risk analysis to ensure data security and compliance with international regulations. During the analysis, which factor is critical to include when evaluating the legal risks associated with the cloud provider's infrastructure?
When evaluating legal risks, the geographic location of the cloud provider's data centers is critical due to varying data protection laws and regulations across different regions. Data residency and sovereignty requirements can significantly impact compliance obligations. While data encryption methods (A), incident response plans (C), and SLA terms (D) are important for overall security and service quality, the legal implications of data center locations directly affect regulatory compliance and legal risk management.
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27. An organization is preparing for an audit to verify its compliance with GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) within its cloud environment. Which of the following actions would most likely meet the auditor's expectations regarding data subject rights?
Providing documentation on data subject access request procedures directly addresses the GDPR requirements related to data subject rights. GDPR mandates that organizations must be able to handle requests from data subjects regarding access, rectification, deletion, and other rights. Demonstrating the procedures for these requests shows that the organization is prepared to comply with these specific requirements. While encryption of stored data (A), regular security awareness training (B), and data processing agreements with third parties (D) are important aspects of GDPR compliance, they do not specifically address the data subject rights aspect as directly as proper request procedures do.
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28. A healthcare provider needs to ensure the confidentiality and security of patient records while also utilizing cloud services for non-sensitive applications like email and collaboration tools. Which cloud deployment model should the provider choose to achieve these goals?
A hybrid cloud deployment model allows the healthcare provider to ensure the confidentiality and security of patient records by storing them in a private cloud, while utilizing the public cloud for non-sensitive applications like email and collaboration tools. This approach provides the security and compliance required for patient data, alongside the flexibility and cost-efficiency of public cloud services for less critical functions. Public cloud alone does not offer sufficient security for patient records, private cloud alone does not provide the flexibility and cost benefits of public cloud, and multi-cloud involves multiple public clouds without the integrated security of a hybrid solution.
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29. An organization uses Infrastructure as Code (IaC) to manage its cloud resources. To improve collaboration and ensure high-quality code, which of the following practices should be adopted?
Implementing a code review process for all IaC changes ensures high-quality code and improves collaboration among team members. Code reviews help catch errors, enforce best practices, and promote knowledge sharing. Allowing each team member to maintain separate IaC scripts can lead to inconsistencies and lack of standardization. Deploying changes directly to production without peer review increases the risk of introducing errors. Avoiding version control systems reduces transparency and the ability to track and manage changes effectively.
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30. A financial institution is designing a cloud-based solution that handles sensitive customer data. To ensure data integrity and confidentiality, the institution decides to use a Hardware Security Module (HSM). During the implementation phase, what is the most critical consideration for configuring the HSM to protect cryptographic keys effectively?
For a financial institution handling sensitive data, integrating the HSM with the cloud provider's key management service (KMS) is critical. This integration ensures that cryptographic keys are managed securely and in compliance with regulatory standards. FIPS 140-2 Level 1 compliance (A) does not provide sufficient security for sensitive financial data, as higher levels (e.g., Level 3 or 4) are typically required. Using a static encryption key (C) undermines security by increasing the risk of key compromise. While HSM multi-tenancy (D) may reduce costs, it can also increase security risks due to potential key exposure between tenants. Therefore, the best practice is to leverage the cloud provider's KMS, ensuring secure key lifecycle management and regulatory compliance.
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31. An enterprise needs to evaluate a cloud service provider's (CSP) security products to ensure they meet international standards for IT security evaluation. Which certification would best validate that the CSP's products have undergone rigorous security evaluation?
The Common Criteria (CC) is an international standard (ISO/IEC 15408) for evaluating the security properties of IT products and systems. It provides a comprehensive and rigorous process for security evaluation, ensuring that the products meet specified security requirements. This certification is globally recognized and provides assurance that the CSP's security products have undergone thorough testing and evaluation. ISO/IEC 27017 focuses on cloud-specific security controls, SOC 2 Type II reports on a service organization’s controls relevant to security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy, and FIPS 140-2 is specific to cryptographic modules. Therefore, Common Criteria (CC) is the best choice for validating rigorous security evaluation of IT products.
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32. A media company stores vast amounts of unstructured data, including video files, images, and documents, in a cloud storage service. To protect this data, they need to implement a data discovery solution. What is the most important feature of the data discovery tool for effectively managing and securing their unstructured data?
The ability to scan and index file metadata and content is crucial for effectively managing and securing unstructured data. This feature allows the data discovery tool to analyze the actual content of files, not just their metadata, enabling accurate identification and classification of sensitive information. Support for multiple file formats and extensions (Option B) is necessary but secondary to the ability to understand file content. Integration with CDNs (Option C) and high-speed data transfer capabilities (Option D) are important for performance and distribution but do not directly address the core requirement of discovering and securing unstructured data based on its content.
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33. During the installation of guest OS virtualization toolsets, an administrator notices that the virtual machine's performance has degraded significantly. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
An outdated and incompatible virtualization toolset can significantly degrade the performance of a virtual machine because it may not support the latest features and optimizations required by the guest OS. This incompatibility can lead to inefficient resource usage and potential conflicts. Insufficient virtual disk space (B) typically causes storage-related issues rather than overall performance degradation. While the guest OS firewall blocking essential ports (C) can prevent certain functionalities, it is unlikely to cause a significant performance hit. Misconfigured vNIC settings (D) can impact network performance but not overall VM performance. Therefore, the most likely cause is an outdated and incompatible virtualization toolset.
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34. An organization is concerned about the secure distribution of sensitive design documents to external partners. They plan to use Information Rights Management (IRM) to enforce access controls. Which of the following strategies will best ensure that only authorized external partners can view the documents, and no unauthorized redistribution occurs?
Embedding access permissions directly within the document ensures that the access controls travel with the document, regardless of how it is distributed. This method prevents unauthorized viewing or redistribution by enforcing permissions at the document level. Even if the document is copied or forwarded, the embedded permissions restrict access to only those individuals explicitly authorized. While centralized repositories and secure email are useful for distribution and tracking, they do not provide the persistent control that embedded permissions offer. Digital signatures verify authenticity but do not control access.
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35. A technology firm is configuring a cloud management tool to enhance operational efficiency. To ensure that the tool provides comprehensive insights into the health and performance of cloud resources, which feature should be prioritized during configuration?
Prioritizing customizable dashboards and reporting is essential for gaining comprehensive insights into the health and performance of cloud resources. These features allow administrators to visualize key metrics, track performance trends, and identify potential issues quickly. Automated incident response (A) is valuable for addressing incidents but does not directly provide insights into resource health. Integration with DevOps pipelines (C) enhances development workflows but does not focus on resource monitoring. Centralized policy management (D) is important for governance but does not address the need for real-time performance insights. Therefore, customizable dashboards and reporting are critical for effective cloud resource management.
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36. During the audit planning phase for a cloud environment, what is the most important factor to consider when defining the audit scope?
The most important factor to consider when defining the audit scope is the specific regulatory requirements applicable to the organization. These requirements dictate what needs to be audited to ensure compliance, making them a critical element in planning the audit. While budget (A), team availability (B), and audit duration (D) are practical considerations, they do not directly impact the comprehensive coverage and relevance of the audit scope. Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements helps avoid legal penalties and enhances the organization's security posture.
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37. An organization is concerned about potential security risks associated with the management plane of its cloud environment. To mitigate these risks, which of the following best practices should be prioritized?
Conducting regular security audits and vulnerability assessments is the best practice to prioritize for mitigating security risks associated with the management plane of a cloud environment. These audits and assessments help identify potential vulnerabilities and ensure that security controls are effective, providing a proactive approach to risk management. Implementing network segmentation (A) enhances security but does not specifically address management plane risks. Using serverless architectures (C) can improve scalability and reduce some security concerns but is not directly related to management plane security. Enabling automatic backups of all resources (D) ensures data availability but does not mitigate management plane security risks.
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38. During a forensic investigation, an organization must ensure the chain of custody for digital evidence stored in its cloud environment. Which of the following practices is essential to achieve this?
Using hash functions to verify the integrity of evidence files (option B) ensures that any access or transfer of the evidence is documented and that the evidence has not been altered. This practice is essential for maintaining the chain of custody, as it provides a cryptographic means to detect any unauthorized modifications. Implementing access controls (A) is important for security but does not alone verify the integrity of evidence. Updating software (C) is a good security practice but unrelated to maintaining the chain of custody. Redundant copies (D) enhance availability but do not ensure integrity verification during access or transfer.
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39. A cloud application must be resilient against attempts by malicious actors to misuse the application’s API endpoints. Which abuse case should the development team prioritize to test for this scenario?
API Rate Limiting Bypass abuse case testing focuses on scenarios where attackers attempt to send an excessive number of requests to the API, potentially causing denial of service or data theft. Testing for this involves simulating high volumes of API requests to see if rate limiting controls are properly enforced and if any mechanisms can be bypassed. Ensuring robust rate limiting helps protect the application from abuse and maintains its availability and performance under attack conditions.
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40. An enterprise is deploying a new Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution and plans to use a cloud-based identity provider (IdP) to facilitate single sign-on (SSO) across various cloud applications. What is a key consideration when selecting a cloud-based IdP for this purpose?
When selecting a cloud-based identity provider (IdP) for single sign-on (SSO) across various cloud applications, it is crucial to ensure that the IdP is compatible with the organization's existing SSO protocols, such as SAML, OAuth, or OpenID Connect. This compatibility ensures seamless integration and reduces the complexity of managing different authentication systems. Managing on-premises network security (A) is not the primary role of a cloud-based IdP. Creating custom user authentication methods (C) may be beneficial but is secondary to ensuring protocol compatibility. While support for multifactor authentication (MFA) (D) is important, it should be considered alongside compatibility with existing protocols.
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41. A multinational corporation stores its customer data in a cloud service provider's data centers located in multiple countries. Some of these countries have strict data privacy laws that require data localization, while others have regulations allowing free data flow across borders. Recently, a country where one of the data centers is located has enacted a new law that conflicts with the corporation's home country regulations on data privacy and access. What is the most appropriate action for the corporation to ensure compliance with all applicable laws?
Implementing a geo-fencing solution allows the corporation to control the location where data is stored and processed, ensuring compliance with local data privacy laws in each jurisdiction. This approach helps manage conflicting international legislation by ensuring that data stays within the legal boundaries of each country’s regulations. Seeking legal advice (A) is essential but not a complete solution. Migrating all data to the home country (B) may not be feasible and could violate local data localization laws. Anonymizing data (D) could help, but it may not fully address the specific legal requirements and operational needs of the corporation.
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42. In the context of ISO/IEC 27036, a company wants to establish a robust process for managing security incidents involving its suppliers. What should be the primary focus of this process?
A detailed incident response and communication plan is essential for managing security incidents involving suppliers, as recommended by ISO/IEC 27036. This plan should outline the procedures for detecting, responding to, and recovering from security incidents, as well as clear communication protocols between the organization and its suppliers. The goal is to minimize the impact of incidents and ensure a coordinated and efficient response. Immediate termination, financial penalties, and regular training, while important, do not address the need for a structured and effective incident management process.
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43. A cloud security professional is reviewing the process for archiving digital evidence to ensure it remains accessible and secure for potential future legal proceedings. What is the most critical factor to consider when archiving digital evidence?
The most critical factor is to ensure that the archived evidence remains in a format that is readable and usable in the future (C). This involves considering the longevity of file formats, compatibility with future software, and ensuring that any encryption used does not hinder future access. While high-capacity storage (A) and strong encryption (B) are important, they do not address the long-term usability of the evidence. Regular backups (D) are also important for data protection but do not guarantee future readability.
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44. A multinational corporation is adopting a cloud-based CRM system. They have a strict data classification policy, particularly concerning Personally Identifiable Information (PII), which is classified as Confidential. As a CCSP, you need to implement a solution to ensure the confidentiality of this data during processing in the cloud. Which of the following strategies would best achieve this objective?
Homomorphic Encryption allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without needing to decrypt it first. This ensures that data remains confidential throughout the processing phase, providing robust security for PII classified as Confidential. Relying solely on the cloud provider's default encryption settings may not provide the specific controls needed for PII. TLS protects data in transit but does not address the security of data during processing. While a DLP service is useful for monitoring and protecting data, it does not ensure the confidentiality of data during computation in the cloud, which is critical for processing PII.
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45. A company operating in the financial sector is migrating to a cloud infrastructure. To comply with the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX), what should the company prioritize in its risk management strategy regarding its financial data?
To comply with the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX), companies must have rigorous internal controls and procedures for financial reporting. Conducting regular audits of financial data processing activities is essential to ensure these controls are effective and that financial reports are accurate and reliable. Audits help identify and mitigate risks, detect discrepancies, and ensure compliance with SOX requirements. While backups, multi-factor authentication, and monitoring are important security practices, regular audits specifically address the compliance aspect of SOX, ensuring that financial data integrity and accuracy are maintained.
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46. A global financial institution is designing a cloud-based disaster recovery (DR) plan for its critical trading platform. The institution needs to ensure minimal downtime and data loss in case of a catastrophic event. Which of the following strategies should the institution implement to achieve this goal?
Deploying a hybrid solution with synchronous replication to a nearby data center and asynchronous replication to a distant data center provides a balanced approach. Synchronous replication ensures that data is mirrored in real-time to a nearby data center, which minimizes data loss (RPO) and downtime (RTO) in the event of a local failure. However, having only synchronous replication to a distant data center can introduce high latency and performance issues due to the geographic distance. By combining synchronous replication for low-latency local failover and asynchronous replication to a distant data center, the institution can achieve both immediate data consistency and a reliable backup in a geographically separate location, ensuring comprehensive disaster recovery.
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47. When conducting threat modeling using the ATASM (Architecture, Threats, Attack Surfaces, and Mitigations) approach, what is the primary purpose of analyzing the attack surfaces?
Analyzing the attack surfaces in the ATASM approach involves identifying all the potential entry points and vectors that attackers could exploit to compromise the application. This includes understanding the application's architecture, interfaces, and external dependencies. By identifying these attack surfaces, security teams can prioritize and implement appropriate mitigations to protect these entry points. Defining business objectives (A) is not related to attack surfaces. Prioritizing security controls based on cost (C) is part of risk management but not specific to attack surface analysis. Implementing encryption for data at rest (D) is a mitigation strategy, not an analysis of attack surfaces.
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48. An organization is designing its cloud architecture based on the AWS Well-Architected Framework. Which of the following best exemplifies the implementation of the Security pillar in this framework?
The Security pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework focuses on protecting information, systems, and assets while delivering business value through risk assessments and mitigation strategies. Encrypting data both at rest and in transit is a key practice to ensure data confidentiality and integrity. Auto-scaling (Option A) pertains to the Performance Efficiency pillar, while deploying resources across multiple availability zones (Option C) relates to the Reliability pillar. Monitoring and optimizing resource utilization (Option D) is part of the Cost Optimization pillar.
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49. A financial institution using ISO/IEC 20000-1 standards must ensure compliance with regulatory requirements by accurately documenting all changes to their cloud infrastructure. Which Configuration Management activity supports this requirement by providing a detailed history of changes to Configuration Items (CIs)?
Configuration Status Accounting supports compliance with regulatory requirements by providing a detailed history of changes to Configuration Items (CIs). This activity involves recording and maintaining comprehensive records of the status, history, and relationships of CIs, ensuring that all changes are documented and traceable. Configuration Identification defines CIs, Configuration Control manages changes to CIs, and Configuration Verification and Audit checks the accuracy of configuration records. However, maintaining a detailed history of changes is specifically achieved through Configuration Status Accounting, which is crucial for regulatory compliance and audit readiness.
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50. A healthcare provider wants to leverage Internet of Things (IoT) devices to monitor patients' vital signs in real-time. To ensure data security and privacy, which related technology should be integrated into the IoT infrastructure?
Blockchain technology can be integrated into the IoT infrastructure to enhance data security and privacy. Blockchain provides a decentralized and tamper-proof ledger for recording transactions, ensuring that the data collected by IoT devices is secure, immutable, and auditable. This is particularly important in healthcare, where the integrity and confidentiality of patient data are critical. Quantum computing is an emerging technology with potential security implications but is not yet practical for current IoT implementations. Machine learning can analyze data but does not inherently provide security. DevSecOps focuses on integrating security into the development and operations process but does not specifically address the unique security needs of IoT data. Blockchain, with its ability to provide secure and verifiable data records, is the most appropriate technology for this scenario.
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51. A multinational corporation wants to ensure its cloud environment can support thousands of users from different regions while maintaining data isolation and efficient resource utilization. Which cloud computing characteristic is essential for achieving this?
Resource pooling is a cloud computing characteristic that allows the cloud service provider to serve multiple customers using shared resources dynamically assigned and reassigned according to demand. This characteristic is essential for a multinational corporation because it enables efficient resource utilization while maintaining data isolation for each user. Rapid elasticity (option B) allows for dynamic scaling but does not specifically address shared resource management. Broad network access (option C) ensures services are accessible over the internet but does not relate to resource sharing and isolation. On-demand self-service (option D) enables users to provision resources as needed but does not focus on efficient resource utilization across multiple users.
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52. A company is using a cloud service provider that offers different data deletion mechanisms. The company must ensure that deleted data cannot be recovered by any means. Which of the following deletion mechanisms should the company choose to achieve this goal?
Secure deletion, which involves overwriting the data multiple times before marking it as deleted, ensures that the data cannot be recovered by any means. This method provides the highest level of data destruction assurance. Logical deletion (Option A) only marks the data as deleted and does not physically remove it, making it recoverable. Physical destruction of the storage media (Option B) may not be feasible or practical for cloud storage. The standard delete operation provided by the cloud service provider's API (Option D) may not guarantee complete data destruction.
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53. A healthcare provider is implementing a single sign-on (SSO) solution to comply with regulatory requirements for secure access to patient records. They need to ensure that their chosen SSO protocol supports robust access control mechanisms. Which SSO protocol should they consider to meet these requirements?
SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is the most appropriate SSO protocol for the healthcare provider's needs because it supports robust access control mechanisms. SAML enables the exchange of authentication and authorization data between identity providers and service providers, ensuring secure access to sensitive data such as patient records. OAuth 2.0 (A) is primarily used for authorization and is often paired with OpenID Connect for authentication, but SAML is better suited for complex enterprise environments requiring detailed access control. LDAP (C) is a protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services and does not directly provide SSO capabilities. RADIUS (D) is used for network access control and authentication but is not typically used for SSO in application contexts.
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54. An online retailer needs to tokenize customer email addresses to comply with data protection regulations. They want to ensure that the tokens are unique and cannot be reverse-engineered. Which tokenization approach should they use?
Replacing each email address with a randomly generated UUID (Universally Unique Identifier) ensures that the tokens are unique and cannot be reverse-engineered. UUIDs are designed to be globally unique and provide a high level of security when used as tokens. Hashing algorithms combined with a secret key can still be vulnerable to certain types of attacks and do not guarantee uniqueness. Format-preserving encryption, while maintaining the format of the original data, does not provide the same level of security as using random UUIDs. Base64 encoding is not a secure tokenization method and can be easily reversed, failing to protect the original data effectively.
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55. To ensure a comprehensive cloud security audit, which stakeholder should be engaged to provide an understanding of third-party risk management practices?
Engaging the risk management officer in a cloud security audit is essential to provide an understanding of third-party risk management practices. The risk management officer oversees the organization’s risk management framework, including the evaluation and management of risks associated with third-party vendors. Their expertise ensures that the audit considers how third-party relationships impact security and compliance. While the procurement manager (A) is involved in vendor selection, the CFO (B) focuses on financial risks, and the compliance officer (D) ensures regulatory compliance, the risk management officer is best positioned to address third-party risks comprehensively.
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56. A financial institution is required to encrypt customer data at rest and ensure that the encryption keys are stored separately from the encrypted data. They also need to regularly audit key access and usage. Which cloud service configuration should they choose to meet these requirements?
Implementing customer-managed keys in a cloud-based KMS with key access logging addresses the financial institution’s requirements to encrypt data at rest and store encryption keys separately from the encrypted data. Cloud-based KMS solutions allow organizations to manage their own encryption keys while leveraging the cloud provider’s infrastructure. Key access logging ensures that all actions related to the encryption keys are recorded, enabling regular audits and compliance with regulatory requirements. This configuration provides a high level of security and control over encryption keys, ensuring that keys are stored separately and access is monitored. Cloud-provider managed keys with audit logging do not offer the same level of control as customer-managed keys. Client-side encryption with on-premises HSMs and manual logging is less efficient and scalable compared to cloud-based solutions. Using default keys provided by the cloud service provider does not meet the requirement for key separation and detailed access logging.
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57. Which of the following is the most effective way to ensure that an internal ISMS remains aligned with evolving threats in a cloud environment?
Participating in industry threat intelligence sharing forums is the most effective way to ensure that an internal ISMS remains aligned with evolving threats in a cloud environment. These forums provide valuable insights into the latest threats and vulnerabilities, allowing the organization to proactively update and adapt its security measures. Conducting annual penetration tests (A) and increasing the frequency of employee training sessions (C) are beneficial but do not provide continuous updates on new threats. Relying solely on automated security tools (D) may not capture the full scope of emerging threats without human analysis and intelligence.
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58. An insurance company is evaluating its disaster recovery plan for its customer management system. The company has an RTO of 2 hours and an RPO of 30 minutes. Which combination of technologies should the company implement to achieve these objectives?
To achieve an RTO of 2 hours and an RPO of 30 minutes, the insurance company should implement real-time data replication and pre-configured standby servers. Real-time data replication ensures that data changes are continuously synchronized with the standby environment, minimizing data loss and meeting the 30-minute RPO. Pre-configured standby servers are already set up and ready to take over operations in the event of a failure, allowing for a swift transition and meeting the 2-hour RTO. Nightly backups, weekly full backups with daily incremental backups, and hourly snapshots cannot provide the required level of data currency and quick recovery needed to meet these stringent objectives. Cold site recovery would also fail to meet the required RTO due to the time needed to set up and configure systems from scratch.
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59. A company experiences occasional performance degradation in their cloud environment due to unpredictable workloads. Which strategy should they use to monitor and optimize resource utilization?
Implementing predictive analytics to forecast workload trends allows the company to anticipate and prepare for variations in resource demand. By analyzing historical data and identifying patterns, predictive analytics can provide insights into future workload trends, enabling proactive resource adjustments. This approach ensures that resources are optimized to handle peak loads and avoid performance degradation. Manually allocating resources is reactive and may not be timely. Ignoring minor performance degradations can lead to larger issues over time. Using a fixed schedule for resource scaling does not account for unpredictable workload variations and may result in inefficiencies.
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60. A financial services firm is using a multi-cloud strategy to enhance resilience and availability. The security team must develop a risk mitigation strategy to handle potential misconfigurations and unauthorized access across different cloud environments. Which of the following should be a priority in their strategy?
Deploying multi-cloud management tools to maintain consistent security policies is critical for mitigating risks associated with misconfigurations and unauthorized access across different cloud environments. These tools help ensure that security policies are uniformly applied and managed, reducing the chances of oversight or discrepancies. Regularly reviewing and auditing access logs (A) is important but reactive. Implementing SSO (B) simplifies access management but does not address policy consistency. Using separate encryption keys (D) is a good practice for data protection but does not directly mitigate misconfiguration risks.
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61. A cloud service provider offers federated identity management to its customers. What is the primary advantage of using federated identity management in a cloud environment?
The correct answer is B. Federated identity management enables users to use their existing credentials to access multiple cloud services, improving user experience and reducing the need for maintaining multiple sets of credentials. This enhances security by centralizing authentication and reducing the attack surface associated with multiple credentials. Option A is incorrect because federated identity management does not eliminate the need for multi-factor authentication; in fact, it can be used in conjunction with it. Option C pertains to data encryption, which is unrelated to identity management. Option D is about network security and not directly related to identity management.
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62. When reviewing a statement of work (SOW) with a cloud provider, your company identifies a critical deliverable that was not explicitly detailed. What should be the immediate step to ensure this deliverable is appropriately addressed in the contract?
The statement of work (SOW) specifically details the tasks, deliverables, and timelines. If a critical deliverable is missing, amending the SOW is the most appropriate action. This ensures that all parties are clear on what is expected and when it should be delivered. Negotiating a separate SLA or adding a clause to the MSA would not provide the same level of specificity and accountability. Including a penalty for non-compliance without first specifying the deliverable would be ineffective, as it is crucial to define the scope of work before enforcing penalties.
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63. A company’s SOC needs to establish a comprehensive incident response plan (IRP) for its cloud infrastructure. Which of the following elements is most critical to include in the IRP to ensure effective incident management?
Clearly defining the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team is crucial for effective incident management. This ensures that each team member knows their specific duties during an incident, leading to a more organized and efficient response. While listing cloud service providers, maintaining an asset inventory, and scheduling regular training are important components of an incident response plan, they do not directly address the coordination and execution of the response as effectively as defined roles and responsibilities.
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64. During an internal audit, a cloud-based company must demonstrate the effectiveness of its virtualization security controls. What is the most challenging aspect of providing assurance for hypervisor security, and how can it be addressed?
The most challenging aspect of providing assurance for hypervisor security is the lack of visibility into the hypervisor layer. This challenge can be effectively addressed by using hypervisor-specific monitoring solutions that provide detailed insights into hypervisor activities and potential security events. These solutions enable better detection of anomalies and facilitate proactive security management. Complexity of configuration management (A) and timely patch management (C) are important but can be managed with standard IT practices. Enforcing consistent security policies (D) is necessary but does not specifically address the unique visibility challenges of the hypervisor layer.
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65. A cloud security professional is preparing for a regulatory audit. The organization must demonstrate its compliance with cloud security standards and data protection regulations. What is the most important step the professional should take to ensure a successful audit?
Conducting a thorough internal audit and preparing detailed documentation (Option A) ensures that the organization can demonstrate its compliance comprehensively and systematically. This preparation helps identify and address any gaps before the regulatory audit. Contacting regulators for specific requirements (Option B) might be useful but does not replace the need for thorough internal preparation. Delaying the audit (Option C) is generally not feasible and can be seen as a lack of preparedness. Relying solely on the cloud service provider’s reports (Option D) may not cover all aspects of the organization’s specific compliance requirements. Comprehensive internal preparation is the key to a successful audit.
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66. A cloud application suffered a breach due to improper session management, allowing attackers to hijack user sessions. What should the training and awareness program emphasize to mitigate this common pitfall?
Extending session timeout durations (A) and allowing indefinite logins (D) increase the risk of session hijacking by providing attackers more time to exploit sessions. Disabling session logging (C) does not prevent session hijacking and can hinder incident response. Implementing secure session management practices (B), such as regenerating session IDs after login, ensures that session identifiers are not predictable and are less likely to be hijacked by attackers. Additional practices include using secure cookies, setting appropriate session timeouts, and implementing HTTPS to protect session data in transit. These measures collectively enhance the security of session management and mitigate the risk of session hijacking attacks.
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67. During an internal audit of a cloud service provider, the auditors note that the scope of the SSAE 18 engagement did not include physical security controls. What is the best course of action for the client relying on this audit?
If the SSAE 18 engagement did not include physical security controls, the best course of action for the client is to conduct their own physical security assessment. This ensures that all aspects of security, including physical security, are thoroughly evaluated and any potential gaps are addressed. Assuming sufficiency based on other certifications (A) or trusting the overall findings of the SSAE 18 report (C) without specific evidence could lead to unmitigated risks. Requiring the cloud service provider to address the gap in the next audit cycle (D) is important but does not provide immediate assurance.
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68. A financial institution must comply with multiple regulatory requirements and has decided to adopt a risk management framework that aligns with its need for detailed security controls. Which framework should the institution adopt to ensure compliance and robust security management?
NIST SP 800-53 provides a comprehensive catalog of security and privacy controls that are well-suited for federal agencies and organizations in regulated industries, such as financial institutions. This framework helps ensure compliance with multiple regulatory requirements by providing detailed guidance on implementing effective security controls. The NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF) (Option A) offers a high-level approach to cybersecurity risk management and is more flexible but less detailed. The COSO ERM Framework (Option B) focuses on enterprise risk management broadly, not specifically on security controls. ISO/IEC 31000 (Option C) provides high-level principles and guidelines for risk management but lacks detailed security control guidance.
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69. A financial institution needs to dispose of old hard drives that contained sensitive financial data. They want to ensure that the data cannot be reconstructed by any means. Which data sanitization method provides the highest level of assurance for physical media?
Physical destruction provides the highest level of assurance that data on hard drives cannot be reconstructed. This method involves physically damaging the media so that it cannot be used or read again, typically through shredding, crushing, or incineration. Formatting a drive does not securely erase the data; it only removes the file system references. Data migration moves data from one location to another and does not delete the original data. Encryption protects data in transit and at rest but does not address data sanitization for disposal. Physical destruction is the most reliable method for ensuring that sensitive financial data cannot be recovered from old hard drives.
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70. In the event of a disaster, a cloud services provider must quickly restore both host and guest operating systems to ensure business continuity. Which backup configuration should be in place to achieve this?
Storing backups of both host and guest OS in geographically separate locations with automated failover ensures that in the event of a disaster, systems can be restored quickly and operations can be resumed with minimal downtime. Automated failover adds another layer of resilience, allowing systems to switch to backup sites seamlessly. Storing host OS backups locally and guest OS backups in the cloud may not provide comprehensive protection if the local site is compromised. Monthly snapshots for the host OS may not be frequent enough, and daily incremental backups for guest OS alone may miss critical updates to the host environment. Backing up only the guest OS without a specific strategy for the host OS leaves the system vulnerable.
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71. During a routine audit, a cloud security professional discovers that the cloud service provider has subcontracted a portion of its services to a third-party vendor without prior notification. What is the most appropriate action to take to manage this situation?
When a cloud service provider subcontracts services without notification, it can introduce additional risks. Terminating the contract (Option A) is a drastic measure that may not be necessary if the risks can be managed. Accepting the subcontracting (Option C) without further investigation is risky as it may compromise security. Conducting an independent security assessment (Option D) may not be feasible without cooperation from the third-party vendor. The most appropriate action is to request a detailed report on the third-party vendor’s security practices to understand the potential risks and ensure they meet the organization’s security standards. This approach allows for informed decision-making regarding the continuation of the service.
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72. A cloud security engineer is tasked with ensuring that data is securely transitioned from active use to long-term storage. The data must remain accessible for compliance audits, but not be actively used in day-to-day operations. Which phase of the cloud data lifecycle involves moving data to a location where it can be stored securely and retrieved when necessary?
The "Archive" phase of the cloud data lifecycle is concerned with moving data to long-term storage where it is not actively used in daily operations but can be retrieved when necessary, such as for compliance audits or historical reference. This phase ensures that data is retained securely and can be accessed when required, but is not involved in regular processing activities. The "Use" phase involves accessing and processing data, the "Store" phase pertains to retaining data in storage systems, and the "Share" phase involves distributing data to other entities or systems. Archiving data properly helps in meeting regulatory requirements and maintaining data integrity over time.
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73. To enhance security in a DevOps pipeline, an organization decides to implement secrets management. Which of the following practices is most effective for managing secrets such as API keys, passwords, and certificates?
A dedicated secrets management tool ensures that secrets are stored securely, encrypted, and access-controlled, reducing the risk of unauthorized access and exposure. Hardcoding secrets in application source code (Option A) can lead to exposure in version control systems. Storing secrets in environment variables without encryption (Option B) does not provide adequate protection. Sharing secrets through email (Option D) is insecure and increases the risk of interception and misuse.
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74. An organization has developed a functional policy for its cloud computing environment that mandates the use of multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all users accessing sensitive data. What is the primary benefit of implementing this policy?
The primary benefit of implementing a multi-factor authentication (MFA) policy in a cloud computing environment is strengthening access control mechanisms. MFA requires users to provide multiple forms of verification before gaining access to sensitive data, significantly reducing the risk of unauthorized access even if one factor (such as a password) is compromised. This enhances the overall security posture by ensuring that access controls are robust and resilient against common attack vectors. While reducing costs (A), simplifying the login process (B), and enhancing user convenience (C) are considerations, the main objective of MFA is to enhance security.
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75. An organization uses Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to manage digital certificates for securing communications. They need to ensure that their certificate management process is robust and minimizes the risk of certificate-related incidents. Which of the following practices should they prioritize?
Implementing automated certificate discovery and renewal processes ensures that certificates are consistently tracked and renewed before they expire, minimizing the risk of service disruptions and security incidents caused by expired certificates. Manual tracking of certificate expiration dates is error-prone and can lead to missed renewals. Storing private keys in the same location as certificates is insecure and increases the risk of key compromise. While self-signed certificates reduce dependency on external CAs, they are not recommended for production environments due to trust issues and lack of widespread recognition. Automated processes provide a reliable and efficient approach to managing certificates and maintaining security.
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76. An organization is evaluating different storage options in the cloud to manage its archival data. Which of the following storage types would be most appropriate for long-term data retention with cost-efficiency in mind?
Object storage is the most appropriate type for long-term data retention with cost-efficiency in mind. It is designed to handle large amounts of unstructured data and offers lower storage costs, making it ideal for archival purposes. Block storage (A) is typically used for high-performance, transactional data and is more expensive. File storage (B) is suited for applications requiring file-level access but may not be as cost-effective for long-term archival. Ephemeral storage (D) is temporary and tied to the lifecycle of virtual machines, making it unsuitable for long-term retention.
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77. A financial services company is implementing a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) to ensure compliance with industry regulations. They need to track and report on user activities across their cloud applications. Which feature of a CASB is most beneficial for this purpose?
User behavior analytics (UBA) is most beneficial for tracking and reporting on user activities across cloud applications. UBA can identify patterns in user behavior, detect anomalies, and generate reports that help ensure compliance with industry regulations. Data encryption (B) protects data but does not track user activities. Single sign-on (SSO) (C) simplifies authentication but does not provide detailed activity tracking. Anomaly detection (D) identifies unusual activities but is part of UBA and does not provide comprehensive reporting on user behavior.
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78. A multinational corporation is evaluating a cloud service provider for its operations in multiple legal jurisdictions. Which legal risk should the corporation assess to ensure the cloud provider can meet international compliance requirements?
Compliance with international standards like ISO/IEC 27018 demonstrates the cloud provider's commitment to protecting personal data and adhering to best practices for data privacy and security. This is crucial for ensuring that the provider can meet the legal requirements of multiple jurisdictions. Infrastructure scalability (A), uptime (B), and customer support response time (D) are important operational considerations but do not directly address the legal risks associated with international compliance.
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79. A development team is using a cloud environment to build and test a new application. They need to frequently create and destroy compute instances to match their testing scenarios. Which cloud service feature should they leverage to automate this process?
Infrastructure as Code (IaC) is the most suitable cloud service feature for automating the creation and destruction of compute instances in a development environment. IaC allows the development team to define and manage the infrastructure using code, enabling consistent and repeatable deployments. This approach is highly efficient for frequent and automated provisioning of resources. Manual provisioning of VMs (A) is time-consuming and prone to errors. Auto-scaling groups (B) are useful for scaling based on demand but do not provide the same level of automation for frequent provisioning and deprovisioning. Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) (D) is related to network isolation and does not directly address the automation of compute instances.
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80. A multinational enterprise uses a cloud service provider (CSP) to manage its customer data. The enterprise defines the purpose and means of processing the data, while the CSP is responsible for storing and processing the data according to the enterprise’s instructions. In this context, who are the data owner/controller and the data custodian/processor?
In this scenario, the enterprise defines the purpose and means of processing the data, which aligns with the role of a data owner/controller. The CSP, which stores and processes the data based on the enterprise's instructions, acts as the data custodian/processor. The data owner/controller is responsible for ensuring that data processing complies with applicable laws and policies, while the data custodian/processor handles the actual processing of the data. This distinction is crucial in cloud environments to delineate responsibilities and ensure proper data governance and compliance.
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81. A cloud service provider is involved in a legal dispute requiring forensic analysis of client data. What is a critical legal consideration the provider must address to ensure compliance with forensic requirements?
A secure, tamper-evident audit trail is essential for forensic investigations as it provides a reliable record of all access and actions performed on the data. This audit trail must be protected from tampering to maintain its integrity and admissibility in legal proceedings. Multi-factor authentication (A) enhances security but does not address forensic requirements. Regular reports (C) are important for transparency but do not specifically address forensic needs. Using cloud-native tools (D) can be beneficial but is not a critical legal requirement compared to maintaining a tamper-evident audit trail.
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82. An organization uses a hybrid cloud environment to manage its data. Due to regulatory requirements, certain types of data must be retained for a minimum of 10 years. However, the organization is also concerned about the cost and efficiency of storing large amounts of data for long periods. Which of the following strategies best addresses both compliance and cost concerns?
A tiered storage strategy is the best approach to address both compliance and cost concerns. High-performance storage can be used for frequently accessed data, ensuring quick access and efficient management. For long-term retention, lower-cost archival storage (e.g., cold storage or tape storage) is suitable, as it is more cost-effective while still meeting the compliance requirements. This strategy optimizes storage costs without compromising regulatory compliance. Storing all data in high-performance storage (Option A) would be prohibitively expensive. Relying solely on on-premises storage (Option C) may not be feasible for large volumes of data and could complicate disaster recovery. Encrypting and compressing data (Option D) helps with security and space but does not address the fundamental issue of storage costs for long-term retention.
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83. A multinational corporation is deploying a hybrid cloud solution and needs to ensure secure network communication between its on-premises infrastructure and the cloud. Which of the following configurations would best achieve this?
Establishing a site-to-site VPN with IPsec encryption is the most secure and effective configuration for ensuring secure network communication between on-premises infrastructure and the cloud in a hybrid cloud solution. IPsec provides robust encryption and authentication mechanisms, protecting data in transit from eavesdropping and tampering. A dedicated MPLS connection (B) can provide a reliable and private network but lacks encryption, which is critical for security. A public internet connection with SSL/TLS encryption (C) can secure data but does not provide the same level of security and reliability as a site-to-site VPN. Deploying a cloud-based firewall with default settings (D) is not sufficient as it does not address the secure communication between the infrastructures directly.
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84. A company wants to ensure that unauthorized access attempts and suspicious activities within its cloud environment are detected promptly. Which of the following solutions should be implemented to achieve this goal?
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) monitors network traffic for suspicious activities and potential security breaches, alerting administrators when such events are detected. IDS provides real-time monitoring and helps in identifying unauthorized access attempts and other malicious activities within the cloud environment. A bastion host with logging is useful for secure access but does not provide comprehensive monitoring of network traffic. Static firewall rules control traffic flow but do not detect intrusions. Vulnerability assessment tools identify security weaknesses but do not offer continuous monitoring for unauthorized activities.
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85. A healthcare provider must ensure that all access to patient data in their cloud storage is logged with sufficient detail to meet regulatory compliance. Which event attributes are most critical to include in these logs to ensure both security and compliance?
For security and compliance in logging access to patient data, it is crucial to include user identity, access type (read/write), and geolocation (option A). These attributes provide a clear record of who accessed the data, what type of access was performed, and from where the access occurred, which are essential for accountability, auditability, and meeting regulatory requirements. Attributes like file size and data retention policy (B), data encryption status and backup frequency (C), and password complexity and session timeout (D) contribute to overall data management and security but do not directly address the core requirements for logging access to sensitive data.
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86. A cloud service provider is evaluating a potential site for a new data center. Which environmental factor is most critical to consider to ensure long-term operational stability?
Historical weather patterns and natural disaster risks are the most critical environmental factors for ensuring the long-term operational stability of a data center. Selecting a location with a lower risk of natural disasters (e.g., earthquakes, floods, hurricanes) reduces the likelihood of prolonged outages and physical damage to the facility. While local tax incentives (Option A) can reduce costs, they do not impact operational stability. Proximity to major highways (Option C) might facilitate logistics but is not as crucial for long-term stability. Availability of skilled labor (Option D) is important but can often be addressed through training and recruitment strategies.
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87. A cybersecurity incident response team needs to ensure that digital evidence is preserved in its original state to prevent alteration or degradation. Which of the following methods is most effective for achieving this goal?
Creating a hash value of the evidence before and after each handling is an effective method to ensure the integrity of the evidence. Hash values act as digital fingerprints, verifying that the evidence has not been altered or tampered with during the handling process. While encrypted storage, backups, and forensic imaging are important for evidence preservation, they do not provide the same level of verification as hashing.
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88. A cloud service provider (CSP) offers ephemeral storage for their virtual machines. What is a primary security concern with this type of storage?
The primary security concern with ephemeral storage is ensuring that data does not persist after the instance is terminated. Ephemeral storage is intended to be temporary and is automatically deleted when the instance terminates. However, if data is not properly sanitized, it could persist and potentially be accessed by other tenants who use the same physical hardware. This could lead to data leakage and unauthorized access. Proper data sanitization procedures must be in place to ensure that no residual data remains after an instance is destroyed. Data leakage between tenants, unauthorized access to storage infrastructure, and data integrity during transfer are also concerns, but the key threat specific to ephemeral storage is data persistence.
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89. A company is assessing the financial impact of its cloud security investments. Which metric should the company use to determine the cost-effectiveness of these investments?
Return on Security Investment (ROSI) is a metric that evaluates the financial return generated by investments in security measures. It compares the cost of implementing security controls against the financial benefits gained, such as reduced losses from security incidents. This metric helps the company determine the cost-effectiveness of its security investments by quantifying the economic impact. Policy Violation Rate (PVR) (Option A) measures policy adherence but not financial impact. Mean Time to Recover (MTTR) (Option C) and Incident Response Time (IRT) (Option D) measure operational aspects of risk management but do not directly address cost-effectiveness. ROSI provides a clear financial perspective on the value of security investments.
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90. A development team is transitioning to a cloud-native architecture and needs to implement security training and awareness programs. Which approach best integrates security training into the development lifecycle to ensure ongoing application security?
Annual training sessions (A) and onboarding training (B) are important but are not sufficient on their own to ensure continuous security awareness. Holding workshops only after incidents (D) is reactive rather than proactive. Integrating security training into the CI/CD pipeline (C) ensures that security is a continuous focus throughout the development lifecycle. This approach embeds security practices into daily operations, making security a fundamental aspect of the development process. By integrating training with CI/CD, developers are regularly reminded of security best practices and are more likely to apply them consistently, thus improving the overall security posture of the application.
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91. A cloud-based service provider operates in multiple jurisdictions and manages both PHI and PII. Which of the following practices best ensures compliance with the diverse data protection laws across these jurisdictions?
While encrypting data (Option A) is necessary, it alone does not ensure compliance with all jurisdiction-specific requirements. Relying solely on cloud provider certifications (Option C) does not address specific legal obligations related to data transfers. Data masking (Option D) helps with anonymization but may not fulfill all legal requirements for data protection and cross-border transfers. Establishing a cross-border data transfer agreement (Option B), such as using Standard Contractual Clauses (SCCs) or Binding Corporate Rules (BCRs), ensures that data transfers are legally compliant with each jurisdiction's requirements, addressing the specific nuances of data protection laws like GDPR, HIPAA, and other local regulations.
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92. An organization is designing a new data center and must ensure robust physical access control. Which of the following is the most effective strategy for protecting the data center from unauthorized access?
The correct answer is D. Implementing key card access allows for controlled entry, while mantraps prevent unauthorized individuals from following authorized personnel into restricted areas. Biometric verification adds an additional layer of security, ensuring that only authorized individuals can access sensitive areas. Option A, while providing basic security, is not sufficient for high-security areas. Option B focuses on biometric controls but lacks the comprehensive approach provided by mantraps and key card systems. Option C, while important, does not offer the multi-layered approach provided in option D.
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93. To enhance security in a hybrid cloud environment, a company decides to implement remote access controls for its administrators. The solution must ensure secure remote access, protect against man-in-the-middle attacks, and provide detailed session logs for compliance purposes. Which of the following solutions should the company choose?
Utilizing a VPN with strong encryption and logging for remote access provides a secure channel for administrators to connect to the hybrid cloud environment. The VPN encrypts all traffic, protecting it from man-in-the-middle attacks. Detailed session logs can be maintained for compliance and auditing purposes. RDP access with default port and no encryption is highly insecure, making it susceptible to interception and unauthorized access. Direct SSH access with simple passwords is less secure than using key-based authentication or multi-factor authentication. Unencrypted VNC access exposes data to interception and lacks robust access control mechanisms, making it unsuitable for secure environments.
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94. An organization is required to implement a legal hold on specific employee email accounts due to an ongoing investigation. To comply with this requirement, which of the following actions should be taken?
Using the email system's built-in legal hold functionality to lock the specified email accounts ensures that emails cannot be deleted or altered, thereby preserving the integrity of the data. This approach is designed for compliance with legal hold requirements and provides a reliable and automated solution. Instructing employees not to delete emails (Option A) relies on user compliance and is not foolproof. Exporting emails to external storage (Option C) adds complexity and may not capture ongoing email activity. Regular backups (Option D) do not prevent deletion or alteration of emails between backup intervals.
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95. A cloud application development team follows the OWASP ASVS for Authentication Verification. What measure should be implemented to protect against brute force attacks on user login credentials?
To protect against brute force attacks on user login credentials, the OWASP ASVS recommends implementing mechanisms like CAPTCHA to differentiate between humans and automated bots attempting to guess passwords. CAPTCHA challenges help prevent automated attacks by requiring users to perform tasks that are difficult for bots to complete. A password recovery mechanism (B) is essential for usability but does not protect against brute force attacks. Allowing passwords without complexity requirements (C) weakens security, making it easier for attackers to guess passwords. Storing passwords in a reversible format (D) is highly insecure and should be avoided; passwords should be hashed using a strong algorithm.
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96. A company has included a "right to audit" clause in its contract with a cloud service provider (CSP). Which of the following is the primary purpose of this clause?
The primary purpose of a "right to audit" clause is to allow the company to verify that the cloud service provider (CSP) is complying with all contractual obligations, including security measures, data handling practices, and service levels. This clause enables the company to conduct audits to ensure that the CSP is meeting the agreed standards and regulations. While financial compensation, performance reports, and access to support records are important aspects of a contract, they are not the primary focus of a right to audit clause.
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97. A cloud security professional needs to ensure that the third-party software used in their organization is regularly updated and compliant with security standards. Which of the following practices should be prioritized?
Creating a comprehensive patch management policy is the most effective practice to ensure that third-party software is regularly updated and compliant with security standards. This policy should include procedures for identifying, testing, and deploying patches and updates in a timely manner, minimizing the risk of security vulnerabilities. Establishing a software update schedule based on vendor recommendations (A) is part of a good policy but lacks the comprehensive approach needed. Relying on automatic updates (B) can be convenient but may not always be feasible or align with the organization's change management procedures. Performing manual updates as soon as vulnerabilities are announced (D) is reactive and may not be sustainable for ensuring continuous compliance and security.
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98. A cloud provider offers a multi-tenant environment where different customers' virtual machines (VMs) run on the same physical hardware. To ensure the isolation and security of these VMs, which security measure should the provider implement at the hypervisor level?
A hypervisor-based firewall is a crucial security measure for ensuring the isolation and security of VMs in a multi-tenant environment. It operates at the hypervisor level, which is the layer of software that enables multiple VMs to share the same physical hardware while maintaining strong separation between them. The hypervisor-based firewall can monitor and control traffic between VMs, preventing unauthorized access and potential attacks from other tenants. Containerization is a different technology used for packaging applications, not for securing hypervisors. Ephemeral computing refers to short-lived computational tasks and is not related to VM isolation. Serverless architecture abstracts the infrastructure management, focusing on running functions, and is unrelated to hypervisor security.
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99. During a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) for a new healthcare information system, the team identifies potential risks to patient data privacy. Which action should be prioritized to address these risks?
The first priority after identifying potential risks to patient data privacy is to conduct a detailed risk assessment (Option A). This assessment involves evaluating the impact and likelihood of each identified risk, which allows the organization to prioritize and implement appropriate mitigation measures. Implementing encryption (Option B), providing training (Option C), and limiting access (Option D) are all important steps but should be informed by the risk assessment. By understanding the specific risks and their potential impact, the organization can develop a targeted strategy to effectively mitigate those risks and ensure the protection of patient data.
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100. In designing a cloud application architecture for a healthcare provider, the organization needs to ensure real-time monitoring and protection of sensitive data as it moves between application layers. Which of the following components should be implemented?
Healthcare applications often handle sensitive patient data that requires stringent security measures. A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is essential for protecting web applications from a range of web-based attacks, including injection attacks, cross-site scripting (XSS), and more. It ensures that only legitimate traffic reaches the application. Database Activity Monitoring (DAM) provides real-time monitoring of database activities, helping to detect and prevent unauthorized data access or manipulation. This combination ensures that data is protected both at the application layer and within the database, offering comprehensive security for sensitive healthcare information.
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101. An organization is seeking to demonstrate compliance with international standards for protecting personal data in cloud environments. Which of the following frameworks should the organization adopt to specifically address the protection of personal data in the cloud?
ISO/IEC 27001 (Option A) is a widely recognized standard for information security management systems but does not specifically address cloud privacy. NIST SP 800-53 (Option C) provides a catalog of security and privacy controls but is more focused on federal information systems. PCI DSS (Option D) pertains to payment card data security. ISO/IEC 27018 (Option B), however, is the first international standard specifically focused on privacy protection in cloud computing environments. It provides guidelines for the protection of personally identifiable information (PII) in public clouds, ensuring that cloud service providers implement appropriate controls to address privacy requirements.
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102. An organization utilizes a hybrid cloud infrastructure and has adopted ISO/IEC 20000-1 standards for its IT Service Management (ITSM). During an incident affecting multiple applications, the incident response team must prioritize the recovery efforts. According to ISO/IEC 20000-1, what should be the primary factor in determining the prioritization of incident recovery?
According to ISO/IEC 20000-1, incident prioritization should primarily consider the impact on business-critical services. This standard emphasizes that IT service management must align with the organization's business needs. Therefore, incidents affecting services that are critical to business operations should be prioritized to minimize business disruption. While technical resources, cost, and complexity are important, the primary focus must be on ensuring that business-critical services are restored as quickly as possible.
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103. A cloud service provider needs to ensure that its multi-tenant application maintains data integrity and isolation between tenants. Which testing method should they implement to validate these requirements?
Multi-tenancy Testing is tailored specifically to assess the performance and security of applications designed to serve multiple tenants from a single instance. This testing ensures that data and operations are isolated between tenants, preserving data integrity and preventing unauthorized access. It involves simulating multiple tenant environments and verifying that there are no cross-tenant data leaks or performance issues, which is critical for cloud-based multi-tenant applications.
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104. During the implementation of a cloud-based application, a software development team needs to ensure that their application can handle unexpected spikes in user demand without compromising performance. Which cloud computing activity best supports this requirement?
Implementing autoscaling policies is the most effective cloud computing activity for ensuring that an application can handle unexpected spikes in user demand. Autoscaling automatically adjusts the number of active compute resources based on the current load, maintaining optimal performance and cost efficiency. While application firewalls, monitoring, and data redundancy are important aspects of cloud architecture, they do not directly address the need for dynamic resource allocation in response to fluctuating demand. Autoscaling provides the flexibility to scale resources up or down as needed, ensuring consistent application performance.
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105. A cloud security professional is tasked with performing a forensic investigation after a suspected breach in a multi-tenant cloud environment. The professional needs to collect forensic data without disrupting the services for other tenants. Which of the following strategies should be prioritized to ensure the integrity and availability of services while collecting forensic data?
Snapshots and cloning storage volumes are critical methodologies in a cloud environment as they allow the forensic investigator to capture the state of a virtual machine or storage volume at a specific point in time without interrupting services. This approach ensures that data integrity is maintained and services for other tenants remain unaffected. Directly accessing the host hypervisor (B) can compromise the stability and security of the entire cloud infrastructure. Shutting down services (C) can lead to service disruptions and potential data loss. Mirroring network traffic (D) from all tenants not only infringes on privacy but also generates a massive amount of data, complicating the forensic process.
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106. A software development team is using a cloud-based sandbox environment to test new code changes before deploying them to production. They need to ensure that any potential security vulnerabilities in the code do not affect the main application or other systems. Which of the following best practices should they implement?
Isolating the sandbox environment from the production environment and network is essential to ensure that any vulnerabilities or malicious code in the sandbox do not affect the main application or other systems. This isolation prevents unauthorized access to production data and systems, providing a secure space for testing and debugging. By keeping the sandbox separate, the development team can safely test new code changes without risking the integrity and security of the production environment.
107 / 110
107. An application is susceptible to Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attacks. Which OWASP-recommended secure coding practice should be implemented to defend against this vulnerability?
Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attacks force authenticated users to execute unwanted actions on a web application. To prevent CSRF attacks, OWASP recommends implementing anti-CSRF tokens in forms. These tokens are unique to each session and form, making it difficult for attackers to forge requests. Using a web application firewall (WAF) (A) can provide additional protection but is not a substitute for anti-CSRF tokens. Restricting the application to HTTPS only (C) ensures secure communication but does not prevent CSRF. Conducting regular security audits (D) is important for overall security but does not specifically address CSRF.
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108. A cloud-based application is being developed with continuous integration and continuous deployment (CI/CD) pipelines. To ensure high-quality software releases, which of the following practices should be integrated into the CI/CD pipeline?
Integrating Unit Testing and Automated Regression Testing into the CI/CD pipeline ensures that the code is tested at multiple levels before it is deployed. Unit Testing verifies that individual components function correctly, while Automated Regression Testing ensures that new changes do not introduce defects into the existing codebase. This combination helps maintain the quality of software by catching errors early and frequently, facilitating reliable and consistent software releases.
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109. A cloud security professional must inform customers about a newly available security feature that could enhance their protection against data breaches. What is the best method to communicate this information to ensure customers understand the feature and its benefits?
Hosting a webinar with a demonstration and a Q&A session (Option B) provides an interactive platform where customers can see the feature in action and ask questions, ensuring they fully understand its benefits and implementation. Sending an email (Option A) or publishing a blog post (Option C) might not effectively communicate the practical aspects and benefits of the feature. Including information in a newsletter (Option D) may not provide the level of detail and engagement needed. The webinar format ensures comprehensive communication and addresses any customer queries in real-time, promoting adoption and enhancing security awareness.
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110. An organization has moved its sensitive customer data to a cloud storage solution. To protect this data, they need to consider security measures during the "Store" phase of the cloud secure data lifecycle. Which approach best secures data at rest in the cloud?
In the "Store" phase, data is at rest and needs to be protected from unauthorized access and potential breaches. Encrypting data with strong algorithms ensures that even if the data is accessed by unauthorized parties, it remains unreadable. Proper management of encryption keys is also crucial to maintaining the integrity and confidentiality of the data. Firewalls (Option B) and multi-factor authentication (Option C) are important but are more relevant to network security and access control, respectively. Regular auditing and logging (Option D) are good practices but do not provide the same level of protection for data at rest as encryption does.
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