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Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Practice Exam 1A
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1. A project manager is developing a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) for a new product launch. What is the primary purpose of a WBS in project management?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a hierarchical decomposition of the total project scope into smaller, more manageable components, focusing on deliverables rather than tasks (C). Option A is incorrect because the WBS does not list stakeholders; that information is included in a stakeholder register. Option B is incorrect because the WBS defines deliverables, while the project schedule assigns task durations separately. Option D is incorrect because the WBS is not a financial tool but a scope management tool used to ensure all necessary work is defined.
2. A project manager is conducting stakeholder analysis for a construction project. Key stakeholders are geographically dispersed, making in-person meetings impractical. Which approach is best suited for gathering requirements in this scenario?
Correct Answer: C. Surveys Explanation: Surveys (C) are effective for gathering input from geographically dispersed stakeholders, as they can be distributed electronically and completed asynchronously. Brainstorming sessions (A) work best in collaborative settings but require real-time participation. Focus groups (B) provide in-depth discussions but are challenging to coordinate across different locations. Face-to-face interviews (D) are valuable but impractical for dispersed stakeholders.
3. A project team follows an adaptive approach and frequently reprioritizes tasks based on feedback. However, the team notices that certain critical tasks keep getting pushed back in favor of urgent but low-value tasks. What should the project manager do?
Correct Answer: B A prioritization matrix helps teams balance urgency with long-term strategic value. (B) is correct because it ensures that important, high-value tasks do not get overlooked due to shifting urgent requests. (A) is incorrect because fixed prioritization contradicts the flexibility required in adaptive projects. (C) is incorrect because focusing only on urgency can lead to a loss of strategic direction. (D) is incorrect because while stakeholder input is valuable, prioritization should be structured and data-driven rather than dictated by individual requests.
4. A project manager is leading an international project involving multiple cultures and time zones. A team member makes an insensitive remark about a colleague’s cultural background during a meeting. What should the project manager do?
Correct Answer: B. Address the remark immediately and reinforce the importance of respect and inclusion. Explanation: The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct promotes respect, fairness, and professionalism. Addressing the remark immediately and reinforcing inclusivity (B) ensures a positive team culture and prevents escalation. Option A is incorrect because ignoring the remark tolerates unprofessional behavior. Option C is incorrect because discussing it privately misses the opportunity to set clear team expectations. Option D is incorrect because removing the team member immediately may be too extreme without corrective measures.
5. A project team is facing interpersonal conflicts due to high pressure and tight deadlines. The project manager organizes a team-building session to improve relationships and reduce tension. Which component of emotional intelligence is being applied?
Correct Answer: B. Social awareness Explanation: The project manager (B) is demonstrating social awareness by recognizing interpersonal challenges within the team and taking proactive steps to improve relationships. Self-regulation (A) focuses on managing one’s own emotions rather than addressing group dynamics. Empathy (C) involves understanding individual concerns, whereas social awareness deals with broader team interactions. Motivation (D) relates to personal drive and persistence rather than managing team relationships.
6. A project manager is developing a project management plan for a construction project that will follow a predictive approach. The organization requires detailed activity sequencing and dependency mapping before work can begin. Which of the following process groups includes the activity of defining and sequencing project tasks?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: The Planning process group (C) is responsible for defining and sequencing project activities in a predictive, plan-based approach. This includes creating the schedule management plan, defining activities, sequencing them, estimating durations, and developing the project schedule. The Executing process group (A) focuses on carrying out planned work rather than defining or sequencing activities. Monitoring and Controlling (B) ensures the project stays on track but does not involve the initial definition of activities. The Initiating process group (D) is focused on authorizing and defining the project at a high level, not on detailed activity planning.
7. A construction company is managing a commercial building project where all design documents, budget estimates, and schedules are finalized before construction begins. The project team follows a fixed sequence of activities, with minimal changes allowed once execution starts. Which project lifecycle is best suited for this scenario?
Correct Answer: C. Predictive Explanation: The predictive approach (C) is appropriate for this construction project because the design, budget, and schedule are finalized before execution begins, and changes are minimized once construction starts. Predictive lifecycles work best for projects with stable and well-understood requirements, where detailed planning is completed upfront. An incremental approach (A) is incorrect because incremental lifecycles deliver parts of the product in phases, which is not applicable to a construction project that must be built in a structured sequence. A hybrid approach (B) is incorrect because hybrid models combine predictive and adaptive elements, whereas this project strictly follows a predictive structure. An adaptive approach (D) is incorrect because adaptive lifecycles respond to evolving requirements, which is not suitable for construction projects requiring a fixed plan.
8. A project manager notices that an activity on the critical path is at risk of being delayed. To mitigate the delay, the project team decides to add extra resources to complete the activity faster. What scheduling technique is being used?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Crashing is the process of adding additional resources to a critical path activity in order to reduce its duration, often at an increased cost (C). Fast tracking (A) is incorrect because it involves performing activities in parallel that were originally scheduled sequentially, which is different from adding resources. Resource smoothing (B) is incorrect because it focuses on adjusting resource allocation without impacting the critical path. Leveling (D) is incorrect because it involves adjusting the schedule to address resource constraints, usually by delaying activities, rather than expediting them.
9. A project manager in a predictive project is tracking stakeholder communications to ensure that all project participants receive relevant updates according to the communication plan. Which project component is being used to manage this process?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: The Communications Management Plan (A) defines how project communications will be planned, executed, and monitored to ensure that stakeholders receive timely and relevant information. The Project Charter (B) authorizes the project but does not govern communication management. Organizational Process Assets (C) include company policies and templates but do not actively manage communication. The Scope Statement (D) defines the project objectives but does not outline communication strategies.
10. A project team is working on a software development project and must allocate programmers, designers, and testing equipment. The project manager wants to ensure all required resources are accounted for. Which of the following is the best tool to help determine the number and type of resources needed?
Correct Answer: B. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) Explanation: The Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is a hierarchical representation of resources by category and type, helping the project manager define and allocate the necessary resources (B). The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) maps work packages to project team members but does not define the resources needed (A). The Project Charter authorizes the project but does not contain detailed resource planning (C). Work Performance Reports track project progress but do not help in estimating or categorizing resources (D).
11. A project manager is leading a system upgrade project and must ensure all impacted stakeholders are identified. Which of the following tools or techniques is most effective for comprehensive stakeholder identification?
Correct Answer: B. Brainstorming sessions and stakeholder analysis Explanation: Brainstorming sessions and stakeholder analysis are key techniques used to identify all potential stakeholders early in the project, making option (B) the correct answer. These methods ensure a comprehensive assessment of individuals or groups affected by or influencing the project. Option (A) is incorrect because the stakeholder register is a document that lists stakeholders but is created after identification has taken place. Option (C) is incorrect since the change control process is used for managing project changes, not stakeholder identification. Option (D) is incorrect because issue logs document project challenges and concerns but do not help in proactively identifying stakeholders.
12. A project manager is preparing for project closure after successfully implementing a new customer relationship management (CRM) system. The sponsor requests a summary of lessons learned and final documentation before the project is officially closed. What is the primary purpose of the project closure phase in this scenario?
Correct Answer: B. To ensure that all project work is formally completed and transitioned appropriately Explanation: The project closure phase ensures that all project work is completed, verified, and formally transitioned to operations or the next phase, including documentation of lessons learned and final approvals (B). Creating new deliverables is not part of project closure; deliverables should have been completed during execution (A). Change requests may be identified but are typically managed through a separate process or future projects, not during closure (C). While project team members may transition to other responsibilities, the primary focus of closure is formal project completion, not reassigning team members (D).
13. A project manager in a predictive project needs to track actual progress against the approved schedule baseline. Which component of the project plan provides the most reliable comparison data?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: The schedule baseline (C) is the best reference for tracking actual progress against planned performance because it contains approved start and finish dates for project activities. The Work Breakdown Structure (A) defines project deliverables hierarchically but does not contain scheduled dates. The Project Charter (B) only provides high-level authorization and does not include detailed scheduling. The Project Scope Statement (D) defines the project's objectives and deliverables but does not track schedule performance.
14. A project team is executing a stakeholder engagement strategy that includes providing quarterly project performance reports to regulatory bodies. However, the regulatory agency unexpectedly requests additional data outside the planned reporting cycle. What should the project manager do?
Correct Answer: B The correct answer is B because assessing whether the request aligns with the planned strategy ensures that the project maintains compliance without unnecessary disruptions. (A) is incorrect because immediately submitting data without evaluation may lead to inconsistencies or misalignment with project objectives. (C) is incorrect because outright denial could lead to regulatory issues or strained relationships. (D) is incorrect because while escalating concerns can be beneficial, the project manager should first analyze the request before involving the sponsor.
15. A project manager is explaining the benefits of iterations to a team new to Agile. However, a team member raises concerns about potential downsides. Which of the following describes a major challenge of iterative project management?
Correct Answer: D Explanation: A major challenge of iterative project management is that iterations require additional effort in continuous planning and adaptation, which may impact team workload (D). Since iterative methods involve frequent reassessments and refinements, teams must dedicate time to ongoing planning, which can sometimes be burdensome. Claiming that iterations do not allow changes in scope (A) is incorrect because flexibility is a core principle of iterative methods. Eliminating stakeholder engagement beyond planning (B) is false because stakeholders play an ongoing role in providing feedback. Guaranteeing cost-effectiveness (C) is incorrect because while iterations reduce some risks, they may lead to additional revisions and rework if not managed properly.
16. A project manager is assigned to lead a new product development initiative for an electronics company. The sponsor asks the project manager to develop a comprehensive plan that outlines how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. However, the product manager is also developing a plan related to the long-term strategy of the product. What is the primary difference between a project management plan and a product management plan?
Correct Answer: A. A project management plan focuses on achieving project objectives, whereas a product management plan focuses on the product’s lifecycle and market success Explanation: A project management plan is designed to guide the execution, monitoring, and control of a specific project, ensuring that it meets its objectives, while a product management plan looks beyond the project and focuses on the product’s overall lifecycle, including its introduction, growth, maturity, and decline (A). A project management plan does not typically include detailed market research and sales strategies, as those are part of product management (B). The roles are reversed—project managers develop the project management plan, while product managers oversee the product management plan (C). Both plans can be shared with internal and external stakeholders depending on the needs of the project and product (D).
17. A large manufacturing company follows a traditional hierarchical structure where decision-making is centralized, and projects must adhere to strict compliance and regulatory requirements. The organization prioritizes stability, detailed planning, and risk mitigation over flexibility. Which project management approach best aligns with this structure?
Correct Answer: B. Predictive approach with structured governance Explanation: A predictive approach with structured governance (B) is the best fit for a hierarchical organization with strict compliance requirements because it provides stability, clear reporting lines, and controlled change management. Adaptive approaches (A) may introduce too much flexibility, conflicting with the need for compliance. Agile (C) relies on decentralized decision-making and rapid iterations, which do not fit well in highly structured organizations. Lean (D) encourages experimentation and continuous improvement, which may not align with a rigid organizational structure requiring predefined steps and approvals.
18. A project sponsor wants to ensure that a proposed project will deliver long-term value before approving funding. What should be used to define and track the project's intended benefits?
Correct Answer: A The correct answer is A because the benefits management plan defines how project benefits will be realized, tracked, and sustained beyond project completion. It provides a framework for ensuring that the project delivers value. (B) is incorrect because the change control process focuses on managing project changes rather than benefits realization. (C) is incorrect because the WBS breaks down project work but does not track benefits. (D) is incorrect because the project charter provides high-level project authorization but does not include detailed benefit tracking mechanisms.
19. A project manager is reviewing project performance and calculates the earned value (EV) as $20,000 and the actual cost (AC) as $22,000. The project sponsor asks for an assessment of the project's cost performance. Which metric should the project manager use, and what does it indicate?
Correct Answer: B. Cost Variance (CV) of -$2,000, indicating the project is over budget Explanation: Cost Variance (CV) (B) is calculated as CV = EV - AC. In this case, CV = $20,000 - $22,000 = -$2,000, indicating the project is over budget. A negative CV signifies that the actual costs have exceeded the earned value. Cost Performance Index (CPI) (A) is calculated as CPI = EV / AC, which would be 20,000 / 22,000 = 0.91, not 1.1, and a CPI below 1 indicates poor cost efficiency. Schedule Variance (SV) (C) measures schedule performance and is calculated as SV = EV - PV; it is not used for assessing cost performance. The last option (D) incorrectly states that a positive CV exists when the actual calculation shows a negative value.
20. A project team is struggling with conflicting priorities, causing delays. The project manager organizes a working session to help team members align their efforts, clarify roles, and agree on a prioritized action plan. What role is the project manager fulfilling?
Correct Answer: D. Initiator Explanation: The project manager (D) as an initiator ensures that the team is aligned and structured to work efficiently by clarifying roles and priorities. A facilitator (A) helps manage discussions but does not necessarily realign team priorities. A listener (B) actively hears team concerns but must take further action to resolve them. A coach (C) provides mentorship but does not primarily focus on team alignment and prioritization.
21. A project manager is working on a software development project and needs to ensure that all requirements are accounted for throughout the project lifecycle. Which tool would be most useful to establish this linkage?
Correct Answer: B. Requirements Traceability Matrix Explanation: The Requirements Traceability Matrix (B) is used to track requirements throughout the project lifecycle, ensuring each requirement is met and linked to project deliverables. The Product Backlog (A) is an agile tool for managing evolving requirements but does not provide traceability across project phases. The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) (C) breaks down work into manageable components but does not track requirements. A Gantt Chart (D) is a scheduling tool and does not ensure traceability of requirements.
22. A pharmaceutical company is simultaneously managing the development of several new drugs, each consisting of clinical trials, regulatory compliance efforts, and manufacturing process improvements. The company should categorize these efforts under:
Correct Answer: C. A portfolio Explanation: Since the drug development efforts are distinct but strategically aligned, they should be classified as a portfolio. A program (Option B) would apply if the drug projects were directly related, but since they may have different goals, they belong to a portfolio. Option A is incorrect because each drug's development consists of multiple projects rather than a single project. Option D is incorrect because operational functions refer to ongoing activities, not strategic initiatives.
23. A project manager is analyzing work packages and needs to determine when a work package is considered completed. Which of the following best defines completion of a work package?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: A work package is considered complete when all related activities and deliverables are finished and have been formally accepted (B). Option A is incorrect because the start of activities does not indicate completion. Option C is incorrect because milestones track progress but do not define work package completion. Option D is incorrect because budget allocation does not determine whether the work is actually done.
24. A project manager is executing the communication plan for a complex software development project. The project stakeholders include senior executives, end users, and technical teams. The communication plan specifies that weekly status reports should be shared with executives, while daily stand-up meetings should be held with the development team. However, after a few weeks, the executives complain that they are not receiving enough visibility into project risks. What should the project manager do to follow and respond to the planned strategy?
Correct Answer: D The correct answer is D because the project manager should follow the existing communication plan, which already specifies a structured communication strategy. Deviating from the plan without assessing stakeholder needs could lead to ineffective communication. Instead of making unplanned adjustments, the project manager should wait for formal requests for additional reporting or propose changes through a structured communication management approach. (A) is incorrect because while adding an executive risk dashboard may provide more insight, it represents a change to the communication plan that should first be formally evaluated and approved. (B) is incorrect as daily stand-ups with executives are impractical and may not align with their availability or need for high-level insights. (C) is incorrect because reducing the frequency of reports contradicts the identified need for more visibility rather than less communication.
25. During a sprint retrospective, a development team reflects on the last sprint and notes that while all features were delivered, customer feedback indicated that some aspects of the user interface need to be reworked. How should the team interpret the sprint’s success?
Correct Answer: C Adaptive projects operate in iterative cycles, where feedback is expected and used to refine future work. (C) is correct because it acknowledges that while the sprint met its original goals, adaptive project success includes continuous learning and improvements. (A) is incorrect because ignoring customer feedback contradicts agile principles. (B) is incorrect because an iterative process inherently expects rework and adjustments based on evolving needs. (D) is incorrect because a single sprint does not determine overall project success, and customer expectations evolve over time.
26. A city government launches an initiative to build five new community centers in different neighborhoods. Each center requires land acquisition, architectural planning, and construction. The goal is to improve community access to public services. How should this initiative be classified?
Correct Answer: B. A program Explanation: The construction of five community centers should be classified as a program (B) because it consists of multiple related projects managed together to achieve strategic benefits. Each community center represents an individual project, but when grouped under one initiative for coordination, they form a program. A project (A) is incorrect because this scenario involves multiple projects, not just one. A business operation (C) is incorrect because operations refer to ongoing tasks that sustain business functions, whereas this is a time-bound initiative. A strategic function (D) is incorrect because while the initiative aligns with strategic goals, a strategic function refers to long-term business activities, not structured project work.
27. A project manager is overseeing a hybrid project where certain phases are plan-driven while others follow an iterative approach. The team needs to identify logical units of iterations to develop a new product feature. What is the best way to determine iteration boundaries in this scenario?
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Defining iterations based on meaningful work packages that deliver incremental value (D) is the best approach because it ensures that each iteration contributes to a usable portion of the product. Breaking work into iterations aligned with reporting cycles (A) is not ideal, as iteration length should be driven by work structure, not administrative requirements. Basing iterations on stakeholder availability (B) is not a primary factor in determining logical units of work, though feedback should be incorporated regularly. Determining iterations based on the project sponsor’s preference (C) might be useful for visibility but should not override best practices in iterative development.
28. A project manager discovers that a key team member has been sharing confidential client data with an external consultant without proper authorization. The project manager is concerned about the ethical implications and potential breaches of the confidentiality agreement. What should the project manager do first?
Correct Answer: B. Report the breach to senior management and document the incident. Explanation: The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct requires project managers to act with integrity, report unethical behavior, and protect confidential information. Reporting the breach to senior management (B) ensures that appropriate action is taken and legal or contractual violations are addressed. Option A is incorrect because confronting the team member alone does not properly escalate the issue or ensure compliance. Option C is incorrect because ignoring the breach violates responsibility and accountability. Option D is incorrect because discussing confidential matters in a team meeting risks further unauthorized disclosures.
29. A project sponsor is questioning the value of the quality management plan and asks why so many resources are allocated to quality management. How should the project manager respond?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: The best response is that quality management helps reduce rework, prevent defects, and improve customer satisfaction, which ultimately reduces costs and enhances project success (A). Option B is incorrect because while PMI standards promote quality management, the justification should focus on its value rather than compliance. Option C is incorrect because eliminating quality management increases the risk of defects, leading to higher costs in the long run. Option D is incorrect because relying solely on customer feedback is reactive and does not prevent quality issues proactively.
30. A project manager is preparing for iteration planning and needs to identify scope inputs that will help define deliverables. Which of the following best represents the primary source of scope inputs?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Stakeholder requirements, constraints, and assumptions documented in the project scope baseline (A) are the primary scope inputs, as they define what the project must deliver and any associated limitations. The project team’s opinion (B) is valuable for decision-making but is not a formal scope input. The available budget (C) affects execution but does not define scope. Competitor product launches (D) may inform strategic decisions but do not serve as direct scope inputs.
31. A business analyst is preparing to present critical project updates to senior executives. To ensure the communication is effective, what approach should be taken?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: High-level summaries with key insights (A) ensure that senior executives receive concise, relevant information focused on business impact, which aligns with their decision-making needs. Providing exhaustive technical details (B) is unnecessary for executives, as they prioritize strategic outcomes over granular data. Lengthy presentations with extensive data (C) may lead to disengagement and reduce the effectiveness of communication. Expecting executives to review a detailed document in advance (D) assumes they have the time and inclination to do so, which is often unrealistic.
32. A project manager receives feedback that their meetings often lack clear outcomes, causing team members to leave uncertain about their next steps. Which of the following would best improve the effectiveness of the meetings?
Correct Answer: A. Conclude each meeting with a summary of decisions and assigned actions Explanation: Summarizing decisions and action items at the end of meetings (A) ensures clarity, accountability, and alignment, making meetings more productive. This practice is recommended in PMI standards as it helps translate discussions into actionable results. Extending meeting durations (B) does not guarantee effectiveness and may lead to disengagement. Limiting attendance to only sponsors (C) reduces inclusivity and prevents valuable insights from team members. Restricting participation to only senior team members (D) might exclude those who have critical inputs, leading to communication gaps. A clear summary with action points remains the best option.
33. Which of the following best describes the difference between a program and a portfolio?
Correct Answer: A. A program is a group of related projects managed in a coordinated manner, while a portfolio is a collection of projects and programs that are not necessarily related. Explanation: A program consists of related projects that are managed together to realize combined benefits that wouldn't be achievable individually. A portfolio, on the other hand, consists of projects and programs that may not be related but are grouped together for strategic alignment with organizational goals. Option B is incorrect because both programs and portfolios can have long-term and short-term benefits, not just one or the other. Option C is incorrect because a program is not a single project with phases; rather, it is a collection of multiple related projects. Option D is incorrect because portfolios focus on strategic management, not just operational activities.
34. A project manager is integrating different project components to ensure successful execution. Which of the following is a key output of the integration management process?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The Project Management Plan is a key output of integration management, as it consolidates all subsidiary plans into a unified document for guiding project execution (B). Option A is incorrect because the WBS is part of scope management, not integration management. Option C is incorrect because a communication matrix is part of the communications management plan. Option D is incorrect because resource allocation charts are related to resource management, not integration.
35. A project has a planned value (PV) of $200,000 and an earned value (EV) of $180,000. The project manager wants to determine the schedule variance (SV). What does the variance indicate?
Correct Answer: B. SV = -$20,000, indicating the project is behind schedule Explanation: Schedule Variance (SV) (B) is calculated as SV = EV - PV. Here, SV = $180,000 - $200,000 = -$20,000, meaning the project is behind schedule. A negative SV indicates less work is completed than planned. Option (A) incorrectly assumes SV should be positive, which would indicate the project is ahead, contradicting the calculation. Option (C) misapplies SV by linking it to budget performance rather than schedule. Option (D) incorrectly states a positive SV, which is not supported by the calculation.
36. A project team is experiencing recurring delays in task completion, and the project manager wants to identify the root causes in a structured manner. Which of the following problem-solving techniques should be used?
Correct Answer: C. Fishbone diagram analysis Explanation: Fishbone diagram analysis (C), also known as the Ishikawa or cause-and-effect diagram, is a structured tool for identifying the root causes of recurring problems, making it ideal for analyzing project delays. PMI recommends it as a systematic approach for diagnosing complex issues. Focus groups (A) gather stakeholder opinions rather than analyzing root causes. Standup meetings (B) are for quick updates and do not provide structured analysis. Brainstorming sessions (D) generate ideas but are less structured for root cause analysis. Therefore, fishbone diagram analysis is the best choice.
37. A project manager is overseeing a project in a predictive environment and wants to ensure that all project work is tracked systematically against time constraints. To achieve this, the project manager uses an artifact that includes start and finish dates, dependencies, and milestones. What is the most appropriate artifact for this purpose?
Correct Answer: D. Project Schedule Explanation: The project schedule (D) is a critical artifact in predictive projects that outlines task durations, dependencies, and key milestones to help track progress against time constraints. It enables the project manager to monitor project execution and make necessary adjustments. The scope baseline (A) defines the approved project scope, including the WBS, but does not track scheduling aspects. The risk management plan (B) outlines how risks will be identified and managed but does not provide a timeline for project activities. The issue log (C) is used to document project issues and resolutions, which is unrelated to tracking work progress over time.
38. A project manager is leading a hybrid project and needs to determine the scope inputs for planning iterations. Which document would provide the most relevant details about deliverables and acceptance criteria?
Correct Answer: D Explanation: The scope statement and requirements documentation (D) are the most relevant sources for defining deliverables and acceptance criteria. These documents outline the project’s work and stakeholder expectations, making them essential for planning iterations. The project communications management plan (A) focuses on stakeholder engagement and does not define scope inputs. The risk register and issue log (B) help manage risks but do not provide scope details. A closing report from a previous project (C) may offer historical insights but is not a primary scope input for planning current iterations.
39. A project team is finalizing the implementation of an enterprise-wide IT upgrade. To ensure a proper transition, the project manager must complete all outstanding documentation, release project resources, and obtain formal sign-off. What is the final step before officially closing the project?
Correct Answer: C. Conducting a post-project evaluation and capturing lessons learned Explanation: A post-project evaluation helps document lessons learned, assess project successes and challenges, and ensure continuous improvement for future projects, making it an essential final step (C). Approving a new phase is a separate decision and does not impact the closure of the existing project (B). Reallocating funds is a financial management task but is not a required final step in project closure (D). Adding new risks to the risk register is relevant during execution but is not a formal closure step (D).
40. A product owner wants to define requirements in a way that encourages collaboration and allows for easy prioritization. The team decides to use a method that emphasizes customer needs in a concise format. Which tool should they use?
Correct Answer: C. User Stories Explanation: User stories (C) emphasize collaboration by focusing on customer needs in a concise and structured way, allowing easy prioritization in backlog management. Fishbone diagrams (A) help identify causes of problems but do not capture functional requirements. Use cases (B) provide more detailed interaction flows rather than high-level prioritization. Control charts (D) are used for monitoring process stability, not requirements gathering.
41. A multinational company with a co-located project team is working on a long-term research and development (R&D) initiative that spans several years. The company’s leadership prefers a highly structured and sequential approach to ensure consistent progress, minimal risk, and adherence to stakeholder expectations. Which project management approach should the project manager select?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: A predictive, plan-driven methodology (A) is the best fit for a co-located, long-term R&D project requiring structured progress and risk minimization. This approach ensures each phase is completed before moving to the next, aligning with leadership’s preference for consistency and stakeholder requirements. Agile (B) would be ineffective as frequent changes in an R&D setting may disrupt long-term planning. Scrum (C) emphasizes short sprints, which may not align with the company's need for long-term structured development. Lean (D) focuses on process efficiency rather than structured progress tracking, making it less suitable for a long-term R&D initiative.
42. A project sponsor asks the project manager to provide a report on key stakeholders and their potential impact on the project. The project manager refers to the stakeholder register for information. What key details should the stakeholder register contain to assist with this request?
Correct Answer: D. Stakeholder name, role, influence level, and engagement strategy Explanation: The stakeholder register includes essential details such as stakeholder names, roles, their level of influence, and how they should be engaged to support the project (D). Risk factors, mitigation plans, and risk owners are part of the risk register, not the stakeholder register (A). Project team assignments, work packages, and deliverables are tracked in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) or the project schedule, not in the stakeholder register (B). Budget constraints and cost estimates belong to cost management documents rather than the stakeholder register (C).
43. A project is experiencing schedule delays, and the project manager calculates the schedule variance (SV) as -$8,000. What does this imply?
Correct Answer: C Explanation: A negative schedule variance (SV) indicates that the project is behind schedule (C). SV is calculated as EV - PV, and when the result is negative, it means less work has been completed than planned. Option A is incorrect because a project ahead of schedule would have a positive SV. Option B is incorrect because SV only measures schedule performance, not cost performance. Option D is incorrect because cost overrun is measured using cost variance, not schedule variance.
44. A project manager is overseeing the construction of a new office building. The project budget is fixed, and the client has specified that no additional funds will be allocated even if material costs increase. Additionally, government regulations require specific environmental compliance, which may impact project timelines. How should the project manager classify the budget limitation?
Correct Answer: B. A constraint Explanation: The budget limitation is classified as a constraint (B) because it represents a fixed boundary condition that restricts how the project can be executed. Constraints are limitations imposed on a project, such as budget, time, resources, or quality requirements. A risk (A) is incorrect because a risk refers to an uncertain event that may impact the project positively or negatively, while a budget limit is a known restriction. An assumption (C) is incorrect because assumptions are things believed to be true but not yet confirmed, whereas a budget constraint is a confirmed fact. An issue (D) is incorrect because an issue refers to a current problem that requires resolution, while a budget limit is a predefined condition, not a problem to be resolved.
45. A project has moved into the execution phase, and the project manager is ensuring that team members are carrying out the work according to the plan. This includes directing and managing project work to meet established objectives. Which activity is being performed?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Directing and managing project work (A) is a fundamental execution-phase activity in a predictive project, ensuring that project tasks align with the approved plan. Developing the project charter (B) is an initiation-phase activity, not execution. Conducting procurement negotiations (C) is part of procurement management and does not encompass overall project execution. Performing integrated change control (D) belongs to the monitoring and controlling phase, focusing on evaluating and approving changes rather than executing planned activities.
46. A project manager is updating the WBS for a new product development project. Which of the following best describes a properly decomposed WBS element?
Correct Answer: D Explanation: A properly decomposed WBS element is a work package that is at a level where it can be estimated for cost and duration, scheduled, and assigned to a responsible party (D). Option A is incorrect because a work package should focus on deliverables, not individual tasks. Option B is incorrect because a work package should contain only one deliverable, not multiple. Option C is incorrect because assigning multiple teams to a work package can lead to confusion; a work package should have a single responsible owner.
47. During a project review meeting, the sponsor expresses frustration over long and overly detailed reports that make it difficult to extract critical information. How should the project manager adjust the communication approach to meet the sponsor’s needs?
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Increasing the frequency of reports (D) while ensuring they are concise and targeted helps the sponsor stay updated with relevant information in a digestible format. Simply adding an executive summary (A) might not resolve the frustration, as the overall report remains detailed and lengthy. Visual aids such as dashboards and graphs (B) are useful but may not fully replace the need for structured updates. Removing most details (C) may lead to a loss of critical insights, making reports ineffective for decision-making.
48. A financial services firm is introducing an adaptive approach for software projects. The company has an enterprise-wide risk management framework, and strict regulatory policies governing financial transactions. How do these enterprise environmental factors affect the adaptive approach?
Correct Answer: A. They create a controlled environment that limits iterative development cycles. Explanation: An enterprise-wide risk management framework and strict regulatory policies (A) establish a controlled environment that can limit iterative development by requiring compliance with predefined rules. While adaptive approaches emphasize flexibility, they must operate within regulatory constraints. Providing flexibility for Agile experimentation (B) may occur in some organizations but is not typical in highly regulated environments. Eliminating governance (C) is incorrect because compliance and governance are critical in financial services. Unrestricted adaptability (D) is unrealistic in regulated industries where compliance must be maintained.
49. A project manager is working on a system implementation project and needs to distinguish between internal and external stakeholders. Which of the following is the best example of an internal stakeholder?
Correct Answer: B. The company’s IT department managing system integration Explanation: Internal stakeholders are individuals or groups within the organization who are directly involved in the project, making option (B) the correct answer. The IT department, as part of the company, plays a crucial role in managing system integration and supporting project objectives. Option (A) is incorrect because government regulatory agencies are external entities that enforce compliance but are not part of the organization. Option (C) is incorrect because third-party vendors are external stakeholders providing services but not directly employed by the organization. Option (D) is incorrect since customers are considered external stakeholders who influence project requirements but do not work within the company.
50. A project manager is leading a cross-functional team where members from different departments frequently misunderstand meeting objectives. How can the project manager ensure meetings are more effective and aligned with project goals?
Correct Answer: A. Provide a clear agenda and meeting objectives before each meeting Explanation: Sharing a clear agenda and objectives beforehand (A) sets expectations and ensures alignment, helping all participants understand the meeting’s purpose, following PMI’s guidelines for effective communication. Reducing meetings and relying on informal conversations (B) risks miscommunication and lack of documentation. Assigning one department as the sole decision-maker (C) limits collaboration and may cause resistance. Rotating meeting leadership (D) can improve engagement but does not directly resolve misunderstanding issues. A structured agenda remains the most effective approach for clarity and alignment.
51. A project is following a predictive approach, and the project manager is finalizing the activity schedule. The goal is to ensure the project remains on track by integrating all estimated durations, dependencies, and resource allocations into a comprehensive project timeline. Which tool or technique is commonly used in this process?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: The Critical Path Method (A) is a key technique in predictive project management used to determine the longest sequence of dependent activities, ensuring accurate scheduling and identifying tasks that directly impact the project completion date. Sprint Planning (B) and Burndown Charts (C) are agile tools unsuitable for a predictive approach. MoSCoW Prioritization (D) is used in prioritizing requirements but does not contribute to scheduling activities in a predictive environment.
52. A project team is working in an adaptive environment and needs to track progress effectively. The project manager emphasizes the importance of tracking frequent changes in scope and requirements. What is the best approach for tracking progress in an adaptive project?
Correct Answer: D Explanation: The best approach for tracking progress in an adaptive project is regular backlog refinement and tracking completed work in small increments (D). This ensures that evolving requirements are properly managed and that work is completed efficiently. Tracking variance against a fixed scope (A) does not align with adaptive methodologies, where scope changes frequently. Using a detailed project schedule outlining all iterations upfront (B) is ineffective because adaptive planning requires flexibility. Comparing actual costs to budgeted costs (C) is useful for financial tracking but does not help in managing iterative work progress.
53. During the scheduling phase of a construction project, the project manager sets a deadline for the completion of the foundation before structural work can begin. The contractor asks how much time is allocated for the foundation work. How should the project manager distinguish between this deadline and the foundation work itself?
Correct Answer: B. The deadline is a milestone with zero duration, and the foundation work is a task with a set duration Explanation: The foundation work is an activity that requires effort and time to complete, making it a task with a duration, while the deadline marking its completion is a milestone because it represents a key project checkpoint (B). Milestones do not involve work or effort, meaning the foundation work itself cannot be a milestone (A, C). A milestone does not span multiple weeks; it occurs at a specific point in time (D).
54. A project team is developing a mobile payment system. A key project assumption is that new data privacy regulations will not require significant changes to the system’s design. However, a new law is passed that forces the team to implement additional security measures, leading to increased costs and delays. How should this development be classified?
Correct Answer: C. An issue Explanation: The new law requiring additional security measures is classified as an issue (C) because it is a problem that has already occurred and is affecting the project. Issues must be addressed through corrective actions, such as adjusting scope, cost, or timeline. A risk (A) is incorrect because while regulatory changes are often anticipated as risks, this specific law has already impacted the project. A constraint (B) is incorrect because constraints are pre-existing restrictions, whereas this law was unexpected. An assumption (D) is incorrect because while the project was based on an assumption, that assumption was incorrect, leading to an issue.
55. A project team is conducting stakeholder analysis to identify key roles for a business process reengineering initiative. The team must differentiate between the responsibilities of a process owner and a product owner. Which statement best describes a key function of the process owner?
Correct Answer: B. Oversees the process lifecycle to ensure continuous improvement and compliance Explanation: The process owner is responsible for the end-to-end lifecycle of a process, ensuring it is continuously improved and remains compliant with regulatory or business requirements, making option (B) the correct answer. This role is critical for process governance and operational efficiency. Option (A) is incorrect because backlog prioritization is a function of the product owner. Option (C) is incorrect as defining product vision and strategy is the role of the product manager. Option (D) is incorrect because technical architecture is managed by system architects or development teams, not the process owner.
56. A project team is struggling with unclear requirements, leading to multiple changes and rework. The business analyst suggests enhancing communication processes to address the issue. Which of the following approaches would be the most effective?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Structured requirement gathering sessions (A) encourage active stakeholder engagement, ensuring clarity and reducing the risk of misinterpretations. These sessions enable business analysts to validate and refine requirements collaboratively. Reducing stakeholder meetings (B) can lead to communication gaps and misunderstandings, increasing the likelihood of errors. Allowing team members to interpret requirements individually (C) introduces inconsistencies and potential deviations from project goals. Relying solely on written documentation (D) fails to capture nuances and does not allow for interactive clarification, which is crucial for understanding complex requirements.
57. A city government initiates a project to build a new public transportation system to reduce traffic congestion and improve urban mobility. How does this project function as a vehicle for change?
Correct Answer: B. It introduces an alternative transportation option, improving city traffic flow. Explanation: Projects drive societal and infrastructure change (B) by offering new solutions, such as improved public transportation, which reduces traffic congestion and enhances mobility. Option A is incorrect because public transit projects provide alternatives, not mandates. Option C is incorrect because urban roads still require maintenance, even with expanded public transport. Option D is incorrect because economic growth is influenced by multiple factors, and transportation improvements alone do not guarantee it.
58. A company is developing a new e-commerce platform. The project scope includes website development, payment gateway integration, and customer account management. A senior executive suggests adding a mobile application for better user engagement. What is the best approach for the project manager?
Correct Answer: B. Review the request and initiate a formal change control process. Explanation: The correct approach is to review the request and initiate a formal change control process (B). This ensures that the impact on scope, time, cost, and resources is evaluated before approval. Option A is incorrect because rejecting changes outright may limit project value. Option C is incorrect because adding features without evaluation can cause scope creep. Option D is incorrect because postponing changes without assessment may lead to missed business opportunities.
59. A project manager is leading an Agile transformation in an organization that is unfamiliar with Agile practices. The team has concerns about shifting from a traditional plan-driven approach. Which of the following adaptive methodologies is most suitable for organizations with a strong need for structure while transitioning to Agile?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: SAFe® is best suited for organizations transitioning from traditional project management to Agile because it provides structured governance, roles, and scaling frameworks (B). It integrates Agile at the enterprise level while still maintaining a level of predictability. (A) is incorrect because Kanban focuses on flow and does not provide a structured framework for large-scale adoption. (C) is incorrect because Scrum, while structured, is best suited for small teams rather than large organizations requiring scaled coordination. (D) is incorrect because XP focuses on engineering practices rather than organizational change management.
60. A project team is working on an Agile project using time-boxed iterations. The project manager wants to ensure that the team understands the advantages and disadvantages of iterative development. What is one key benefit of using iterations in project planning?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Iterations help manage stakeholder expectations by delivering incremental value frequently (A), allowing continuous feedback and adjustments to meet changing requirements. This aligns with Agile principles and enhances customer satisfaction. Eliminating documentation and tracking (B) is incorrect because even in iterative projects, documentation is still needed for transparency and governance. Preventing scope creep entirely (C) is unrealistic because iterations are designed to accommodate evolving requirements, not to rigidly define scope upfront. Identifying and mitigating all risks before development (D) is incorrect because iterative methods encourage ongoing risk management, not preemptive resolution of all risks.
61. A construction company is building a new commercial office space. The project manager is responsible for overseeing the construction schedule, budget, and scope, while the product manager is focused on leasing strategies, tenant relationships, and long-term property management. How does the project management plan differ from the product management plan in this case?
Correct Answer: A. The project management plan focuses on executing construction activities, whereas the product management plan focuses on long-term property value and tenant satisfaction Explanation: The project management plan is concerned with the execution and control of project work, ensuring that construction activities are completed successfully, while the product management plan is responsible for aspects such as leasing, tenant management, and overall property value (A). Leasing strategies and financial forecasting fall under product management rather than project management (B). Profitability after project completion is a concern for product management, whereas project management ensures that the construction process is executed correctly (C). The two plans serve different purposes and are not interchangeable (D).
62. A project manager is working on a large-scale transportation project requiring extensive resource allocation, including labor, equipment, and materials. The organization wants to ensure that resources are acquired efficiently without exceeding the budget. What process should the project manager follow to develop a structured approach to resource procurement and allocation?
Correct Answer: A. Plan Resource Management Explanation: Plan Resource Management is the process of defining how to estimate, acquire, manage, and utilize project resources, making it the correct process for structuring resource procurement and allocation (A). Conduct Procurements focuses on obtaining goods and services from external vendors but does not cover overall resource management (B). The Project Charter authorizes the project but does not define resource allocation (C). Perform Integrated Change Control manages project changes but does not develop resource strategies (D).
63. A project team is adopting an adaptive approach and is considering using Scrum for software development. The team wants to understand the primary role of the Scrum Master. Which of the following best describes the role of a Scrum Master?
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The Scrum Master is primarily responsible for ensuring the team follows Scrum principles and removing obstacles that hinder progress (B). This role acts as a servant-leader, coaching the team on Agile principles and facilitating Scrum ceremonies. (A) is incorrect because task assignments and performance management are the responsibility of the Development Team, not the Scrum Master. (C) is incorrect because product decisions fall under the Product Owner’s responsibilities. (D) is incorrect because Scrum does not use Gantt charts; progress is tracked through burndown charts and other Agile artifacts.
64. A product owner and project manager are reviewing the backlog for an adaptive project. They are debating whether to prioritize a high-risk, high-value feature or a low-risk, moderate-value feature. What should they prioritize, according to best practices?
Correct Answer: C In adaptive project management, prioritization is driven by customer value while considering risk. (C) is correct because it ensures the most impactful work is addressed while assessing the team’s risk tolerance. (A) is incorrect because risk alone should not drive prioritization; value must be a key factor. (B) is incorrect because focusing solely on low-risk work may delay critical value delivery. (D) is incorrect because deferring value-driven work in favor of low-effort tasks does not align with effective backlog management.
65. A project team is working on upgrading an organization’s IT infrastructure. The project manager needs to classify the various stakeholders involved. Which of the following is an example of an external stakeholder?
Correct Answer: B. A contracted cybersecurity firm ensuring compliance with regulations Explanation: The contracted cybersecurity firm is an external stakeholder because it operates outside the organization and provides specialized services, making option (B) the correct answer. This firm is hired to ensure compliance but is not part of the company's internal workforce. Option (A) is incorrect because the IT department is an internal stakeholder involved in technical implementation. Option (C) is incorrect because the procurement team is part of the organization and supports vendor management internally. Option (D) is incorrect as the internal help desk, being an internal support function, does not qualify as an external stakeholder.
66. A project manager is working on a marketing campaign and realizes that the team is waiting for critical stakeholder feedback before proceeding. However, the project sponsor is unavailable for several weeks. What should the project manager do?
Correct Answer: C. Engage relevant stakeholders and escalate the issue if necessary Explanation: The project manager (C) must proactively engage relevant stakeholders to obtain necessary feedback and escalate the issue if needed to prevent delays. Proceeding based on assumptions (A) risks misalignment with business objectives. Delaying the project (B) may result in missed deadlines and inefficiencies. The project team (D) does not have the authority to approve major decisions that impact project scope and strategy.
67. A project involves research and development (R&D) of a new pharmaceutical drug. The regulatory requirements are well-defined, but the scientific findings could lead to changes in methodology and experimental design. Which project approach is best suited for handling this kind of uncertainty?
Correct Answer: D. Predictive with phase gate reviews Explanation: A predictive approach with phase gate reviews (D) is ideal because regulatory requirements require structured oversight, but the research aspect demands checkpoints to reassess progress. Predictive with fixed milestones (A) does not allow the flexibility needed for R&D uncertainties. Incremental delivery (B) is more suitable for software or product development, not regulatory-driven projects. Adaptive with iterative adjustments (C) is common in software and creative industries but does not align well with the regulatory constraints of pharmaceutical development.
68. A project team is facing resistance from a key stakeholder regarding resource allocation. The project manager arranges a meeting with the stakeholder to find a mutually beneficial solution while keeping the project on track. What role is the project manager performing in this scenario?
Correct Answer: C. Negotiator Explanation: The project manager (C) as a negotiator ensures that project needs are balanced with stakeholder concerns by finding a compromise on resource allocation. A facilitator (A) helps with team collaboration but does not necessarily involve direct negotiations. As a listener (B), the project manager actively understands concerns but must also act to resolve conflicts. Initiators (D) are responsible for launching the project and setting objectives rather than resolving resource disputes.
69. A project team is conducting a risk review session and notices that several previously identified risks in the risk register are no longer relevant. What should the project manager do with these risks in the register?
Correct Answer: A. Update their status to "closed" and document the reason for closure Explanation: Risks that are no longer relevant should be marked as "closed" in the risk register with an explanation for their closure, maintaining a clear record for future reference (A). Removing them completely eliminates important historical data that can be useful for audits or future projects (B). While lessons learned may include insights on risk management, the risk register itself should maintain historical records (C). Ignoring outdated risks without formally closing them can create confusion in future risk management efforts (D).
70. A digital marketing agency is structured as a flat organization with minimal hierarchy, where teams have high autonomy, and project requirements change frequently based on client feedback. The agency values rapid iterations, creativity, and continuous improvement. Which project approach should the agency implement?
Correct Answer: C. Adaptive approach with an emphasis on collaboration and change Explanation: An adaptive approach (C) is ideal for a flat organization that prioritizes collaboration, flexibility, and rapid adjustments based on client feedback. Agile methods, such as Scrum or Kanban, allow teams to respond to changing requirements efficiently. A predictive approach with rigid phase gates (A) is too structured for an environment requiring constant iteration. A hybrid approach (B) may work in some cases, but a fully adaptive method aligns better with the agency’s needs. A predictive approach with strict milestone tracking (D) limits flexibility, making it unsuitable for a creative agency that thrives on adaptability.
71. A project manager is reviewing the quality metrics outlined in the quality management plan and identifies that the defect rate exceeds the acceptable threshold. What is the best course of action?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: When the defect rate exceeds the acceptable threshold, the appropriate response is to implement corrective actions aimed at improving quality and preventing further defects (A). Option B is incorrect because increasing production speed may compromise quality rather than improve it. Option C is incorrect because reducing quality control activities can increase the risk of future defects and project failures. Option D is incorrect because even minor defects can accumulate and impact customer satisfaction and project success.
72. A team using Kanban needs to ensure that workflow is managed efficiently. Which artifact is essential for this type of adaptive project?
Correct Answer: D. Project Management Plan Explanation: The Project Management Plan (D) is a critical artifact that provides high-level guidance for Kanban-based project execution, including policies on limiting work in progress, cycle times, and throughput management. The Product Backlog (A) is used in Scrum rather than Kanban, where work is pulled rather than managed in sprints. Work In Progress (WIP) Limits (B) are an essential practice in Kanban, but they are a component of the overall management strategy rather than an artifact. The Change Log (C) records changes but does not facilitate Kanban flow management.
73. A project manager assigns work packages, tracks deliverables, and ensures adherence to project plans, but team members feel disengaged and lack direction. What leadership action can the project manager take to improve the situation?
Correct Answer: A. Set a compelling vision and encourage team involvement in decision-making Explanation: The project manager (A) should focus on leadership by setting a compelling vision and involving the team in decision-making to enhance engagement and motivation. Leadership fosters inspiration and team alignment. Increasing task monitoring (B) may improve efficiency but does not address disengagement. Delegating more tasks (C) may help distribute workload but does not necessarily increase motivation or provide direction. Reducing formal communication (D) may hinder clarity rather than improve engagement.
74. A project team is using a WBS for initial project planning but needs to implement iterations for the development phase. What is an essential step in converting the WBS into an adaptive iteration plan?
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Defining iteration goals based on business value and technical feasibility (A) is essential for successfully converting a WBS into an adaptive iteration plan. This ensures that each iteration delivers a meaningful increment while considering the complexity of the work. Assigning iterations based strictly on dependencies and milestones (B) is more aligned with traditional predictive planning rather than iterative approaches. Completing all work package tasks sequentially (C) contradicts the flexibility of iterations, where work can evolve over multiple cycles. Simply translating WBS elements into high-level requirements without adjusting their structure (D) does not properly align the WBS with the iterative nature of Agile methods.
75. During a project risk assessment, a project manager identifies a potential issue that could lead to a two-month delay. The risk response plan is developed, and the team implements proactive measures to mitigate the risk. What is the primary benefit of effective risk management in project management?
Correct Answer: C. It enables the project team to anticipate, assess, and respond to potential threats and opportunities Explanation: Effective risk management allows the project team to identify, assess, and develop response strategies for both threats and opportunities, increasing project success rates (C). It is impossible to eliminate all risks before execution; instead, risks are continuously monitored and managed throughout the project lifecycle (A). Ignoring low-priority risks could result in unexpected consequences that may negatively impact the project (B). While risk management helps maintain project schedules, it does not guarantee that unforeseen events will never cause delays, but rather that the team is prepared to address them (D).
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